SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Exchange Act of 1934 QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Exchange Act of 1934 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1.	Which of the following is true about the Securities Exchange Act of 1934?(Select all that apply.)A.	It applies to exempt securities.B.	It determines what fair trading practices are.C.	It regulates the secondary trading of securities.D.	It was established by the Securities and Exchange Commission.2.	Which of the following is contained in a 10-K? (Select all that apply.)A.	balance sheetB.	cash flow statementC.	compensation of officersD.	income statement3.	The 10-Q is an audited financial report submitted quarterly to the Securities and Exchange Commission.A.	TrueB.	False4.	A ___ is filed if the company changes its name or there’s a 5% or greater change in the number of shares outstanding.A.	10-CB.	13-GC.	15-BD.	8-K5.	Which of the following is required from the broker-dealers by the Securities Exchange Act of 1934?(Select all that apply.)A.	buy back stocks for customers that reneged on their transactionsB.	electronically deliver clients’ confirmation and statementsC.	maintain a minimum net capitalD.	send customers a copy of their income statement6.	Under ___, margins are regulated from brokers to their customers.A.	Regulation DB.	Regulation MC.	Regulation TD.	Regulation U7.	Broker-dealers are allowed to disclose to customers the routing of the customers’ orders.A.	TrueB.	False8.	It is a totally anonymous matching of buy and sell orders.A.	alternative trading systemB.	electronic exchangeC.	electronics communication networkD.	physical exchange9.	Which of the following are/were physical exchanges?(Select all that apply.)A.	Cincinnati Stock ExchangeB.	New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)C.	Pacific Stock ExchangeD.	Philadelphia Stock Exchange10.	Which of the following is true about penny stocks?(Select all that apply.)A.	They are sold on the over-the-counter bulletin board.B.	They are unsolicited orders.C.	They are traded on the NASDAQ and other listed exchanges.D.	They sell at less than $5.11.	The broker is not required to assess a penny stock buyer’s financial situation if the buyer is a/an ___.(Select all that apply.)A.	accredited investorB.	client whose order is unsolicitedC.	insiderD.	interstate citizen12.	It is trading on nonpublic material information on the company.A.	front runningB.	insider tradingC.	peggingD.	wash trade13.	This is the catchall rule that prohibits anything fraud even if it is not specifically prohibited in the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.A.	Rule 10b-5B.	Rule 127-cC.	Rule 144AD.	Rule 14514.	For unlawful practices under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, suits can be brought within ___ of discovery.A.	six monthsB.	one yearC.	two yearsD.	three years15.	If a control person owns a position of a stock and he wants to lock in his profit or loss, he can ___.A.	dribble outB.	peg the stockC.	short against the boxD.	short sell the stock16.	Anybody that has nonpublic material information on the company is considered an insider.A.	TrueB.	False17.	In the United Sates, they are exempted from the rules that prohibit insider trading.(Select all that apply.)A.	congressmenB.	directors of the companyC.	officers of the companyD.	senators18.	Insiders can trade on the material nonpublic information once the information has been made public.A.	TrueB.	False19.	Only the Securities and Exchange Commission can sue insider traders.A.	TrueB.	False20.	The statute of limitation for insider trading is ___.A.	one yearB.	three yearsC.	five yearsD.	ten yearsWe hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Exchange Act of 1934 QuizTotal Course 37 hours 10 Min

SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Exchange Act of 1934 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Exchange Act of 1934 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1.	Which of the following is true about the Securities Exchange Act of 1934? (Select all that apply.) A.	It applies to exempt securities. B.	It determines what fair trading practices are. C.	It regulates the secondary trading of securities. D.	It was established by the Securities and Exchange Commission. 2.	Which of the following is contained in a 10-K? (Select all that apply.) A.	balance sheet B.	cash flow statement C.	compensation of officers D.	income statement 3.	The 10-Q is an audited financial report submitted quarterly to the Securities and Exchange Commission. A.	True B.	False 4.	A ___ is filed if the company changes its name or there’s a 5% or greater change in the number of shares outstanding. A.	10-C B.	13-G C.	15-B D.	8-K 5.	Which of the following is required from the broker-dealers by the Securities Exchange Act of 1934? (Select all that apply.) A.	buy back stocks for customers that reneged on their transactions B.	electronically deliver clients’ confirmation and statements C.	maintain a minimum net capital D.	send customers a copy of their income statement 6.	Under ___, margins are regulated from brokers to their customers. A.	Regulation D B.	Regulation M C.	Regulation T D.	Regulation U 7.	Broker-dealers are allowed to disclose to customers the routing of the customers’ orders. A.	True B.	False 8.	It is a totally anonymous matching of buy and sell orders. A.	alternative trading system B.	electronic exchange C.	electronics communication network D.	physical exchange 9.	Which of the following are/were physical exchanges? (Select all that apply.) A.	Cincinnati Stock Exchange B.	New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) C.	Pacific Stock Exchange D.	Philadelphia Stock Exchange 10.	Which of the following is true about penny stocks? (Select all that apply.) A.	They are sold on the over-the-counter bulletin board. B.	They are unsolicited orders. C.	They are traded on the NASDAQ and other listed exchanges. D.	They sell at less than $5. 11.	The broker is not required to assess a penny stock buyer’s financial situation if the buyer is a/an ___. (Select all that apply.) A.	accredited investor B.	client whose order is unsolicited C.	insider D.	interstate citizen 12.	It is trading on nonpublic material information on the company. A.	front running B.	insider trading C.	pegging D.	wash trade 13.	This is the catchall rule that prohibits anything fraud even if it is not specifically prohibited in the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. A.	Rule 10b-5 B.	Rule 127-c C.	Rule 144A D.	Rule 145 14.	For unlawful practices under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, suits can be brought within ___ of discovery. A.	six months B.	one year C.	two years D.	three years 15.	If a control person owns a position of a stock and he wants to lock in his profit or loss, he can ___. A.	dribble out B.	peg the stock C.	short against the box D.	short sell the stock 16.	Anybody that has nonpublic material information on the company is considered an insider. A.	True B.	False 17.	In the United Sates, they are exempted from the rules that prohibit insider trading. (Select all that apply.) A.	congressmen B.	directors of the company C.	officers of the company D.	senators 18.	Insiders can trade on the material nonpublic information once the information has been made public. A.	True B.	False 19.	Only the Securities and Exchange Commission can sue insider traders. A.	True B.	False 20.	The statute of limitation for insider trading is ___. A.	one year B.	three years C.	five years D.	ten years We hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Exchange Act of 1934 Quiz Total Course 37 hours 10 Min

SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Exchange Act of 1934 Quiz

son23 Securities Act of 1933 QuizThis is a  SIE Podcast Interview with Whistleblower Attorney Mark PugsleyThis is and interview with Whistleblower Attorney Mark Pugsley while this is not information that is required for the SIE Exam I think you will be a more knowledgeable advisor if you are aware of the information contained in this interview.Mark Pugsley is quite famous for his part in bringing down Milton Trevor of Nikola corporation.  He was featured prominently in the podcast BAD BETSThis is information about Mark Pugsley from his website"Mark Pugsley has been handling securities disputes, financial fraud and whistleblower cases for 28 years. His whistleblower practice includes preparing and filing whistleblower tips with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), the Commodities Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) and the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), he also handles False Claims Act or “Qui Tam” lawsuits, FINRA arbitrations and other types of investment disputes.Mark is based in our Utah office, the state which boasts the largest number of Ponzi schemes per capita in the country. He has been recognized by Super Lawyers, Best Lawyers, Benchmark Plaintiffs, and Martindale Hubbell as one of the top securities lawyers in the country. He is licensed to practice law in Utah and California.Mark represents whistleblowers in a number of high-profile ongoing cases, including the whistleblowers in the Washakie Renewable Energy scam in which executives pleaded guilty to criminal charges in a $1 billion biodiesel tax fraud scheme.  He also represents the whistleblowers in the Nikola Motors case who uncovered widespread fraud by the CEO, Trevor Milton.  The whistleblower report to the SEC in the Nikola case led to a $125 million settlement by the company with the SEC, and Mr. Milton was charged civilly and criminally with securities fraud, among other charges. Another of his whistleblower clients uncovered an ongoing $200 million Ponzi scheme that led to civil and criminal actions by the DOJ, SEC and State regulators.  These cases are ongoing.Significant recoveries for his whistleblower, investment fraud and FINRA Arbitration clients include the following: 	Representation of two whistleblowers in an SEC whistleblower case that was approved for an award in April of 2021. His clients were awarded 30% of the $9,384,253 in ordered fines and penalties – the maximum award possible. 	Represented the Declarant in a whistleblower case filed against Vivint Smart Home Inc.. On January 6, 2021 the Justice Department announced that Vivint had agreed to pay the United States $3.2 million to resolve the case. His client will receive a significant reward. 	Represented a client in an $11 million CFTC whistleblower case that was approved for an award in January of 2020. His client will receive a significant portion of all restitution and civil penalties collected by the CFTC. 	Representation of three clients in a 5-day trial in Utah State Court where his clients were awarded compensatory damages in excess of $3 million, $2 million in punitive damages, and attorney’s fees. 	Represented a bankruptcy trustee and trustee of a private actions trust pursuing the claims of over 400 victims of a Ponzi scheme against a national life insurance company for securities fraud and the negligent employment of the agents who perpetrated the scheme for over a decade. The parties reached an 8-figure settlement in 2018. 	Represented 15 clients in a FINRA arbitration case alleging more than $6 million in out of pocket damages involving a rogue broker from a national brokerage firm. The firm settled the case shortly before the arbitration hearing in August of 2018 for a confidential amount. 	Represented 28 clients in a case alleging more than $10 million in out of pocket damages involving a broker who was employed by a national brokerage firm. The case was settled for a confidential sum that resulted in substantial recovery...

son23 Securities Act of 1933 Quiz This is a  SIE Podcast Interview with Whistleblower Attorney Mark Pugsley This is and interview with Whistleblower Attorney Mark Pugsley while this is not information that is required for the SIE Exam I think you will be a more knowledgeable advisor if you are aware of the information contained in this interview. Mark Pugsley is quite famous for his part in bringing down Milton Trevor of Nikola corporation.  He was featured prominently in the podcast BAD BETS This is information about Mark Pugsley from his website "Mark Pugsley has been handling securities disputes, financial fraud and whistleblower cases for 28 years. His whistleblower practice includes preparing and filing whistleblower tips with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), the Commodities Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) and the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), he also handles False Claims Act or “Qui Tam” lawsuits, FINRA arbitrations and other types of investment disputes. Mark is based in our Utah office, the state which boasts the largest number of Ponzi schemes per capita in the country. He has been recognized by Super Lawyers, Best Lawyers, Benchmark Plaintiffs, and Martindale Hubbell as one of the top securities lawyers in the country. He is licensed to practice law in Utah and California. Mark represents whistleblowers in a number of high-profile ongoing cases, including the whistleblowers in the Washakie Renewable Energy scam in which executives pleaded guilty to criminal charges in a $1 billion biodiesel tax fraud scheme.  He also represents the whistleblowers in the Nikola Motors case who uncovered widespread fraud by the CEO, Trevor Milton.  The whistleblower report to the SEC in the Nikola case led to a $125 million settlement by the company with the SEC, and Mr. Milton was charged civilly and criminally with securities fraud, among other charges. Another of his whistleblower clients uncovered an ongoing $200 million Ponzi scheme that led to civil and criminal actions by the DOJ, SEC and State regulators.  These cases are ongoing. Significant recoveries for his whistleblower, investment fraud and FINRA Arbitration clients include the following: 	Representation of two whistleblowers in an SEC whistleblower case that was approved for an award in April of 2021. His clients were awarded 30% of the $9,384,253 in ordered fines and penalties – the maximum award possible. 	Represented the Declarant in a whistleblower case filed against Vivint Smart Home Inc.. On January 6, 2021 the Justice Department announced that Vivint had agreed to pay the United States $3.2 million to resolve the case. His client will receive a significant reward. 	Represented a client in an $11 million CFTC whistleblower case that was approved for an award in January of 2020. His client will receive a significant portion of all restitution and civil penalties collected by the CFTC. 	Representation of three clients in a 5-day trial in Utah State Court where his clients were awarded compensatory damages in excess of $3 million, $2 million in punitive damages, and attorney’s fees. 	Represented a bankruptcy trustee and trustee of a private actions trust pursuing the claims of over 400 victims of a Ponzi scheme against a national life insurance company for securities fraud and the negligent employment of the agents who perpetrated the scheme for over a decade. The parties reached an 8-figure settlement in 2018. 	Represented 15 clients in a FINRA arbitration case alleging more than $6 million in out of pocket damages involving a rogue broker from a national brokerage firm. The firm settled the case shortly before the arbitration hearing in August of 2018 for a confidential amount. 	Represented 28 clients in a case alleging more than $10 million in out of pocket damages involving a broker who was employed by a national brokerage firm. The case was settled for a confidential sum that resulted in substantial recovery...

SIE Exam Interview with Whistleblower Atty. Mark Pugsley

SIE Exam Lesson 23 Securities Act of 1933 QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 23 Securities Act of 1933 Quiz , See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1.	Which of the following is true about the Securities Exchange Act of 1934?(Select all that apply.)A.	It applies to exempt securities.B.	It determines what fair trading practices are.C.	It regulates the secondary trading of securities.D.	It was established by the Securities and Exchange Commission.2.	Which of the following is contained in a 10-K? (Select all that apply.)A.	balance sheetB.	cash flow statementC.	compensation of officersD.	income statement3.	The 10-Q is an audited financial report submitted quarterly to the Securities and Exchange Commission.A.	TrueB.	False4.	A ___ is filed if the company changes its name or there’s a 5% or greater change in the number of shares outstanding.A.	10-CB.	13-GC.	15-BD.	8-K5.	Which of the following is required from the broker-dealers by the Securities Exchange Act of 1934?(Select all that apply.)A.	buy back stocks for customers that reneged on their transactionsB.	electronically deliver clients’ confirmation and statementsC.	maintain a minimum net capitalD.	send customers a copy of their income statement6.	Under ___, margins are regulated from brokers to their customers.A.	Regulation DB.	Regulation MC.	Regulation TD.	Regulation U7.	Broker-dealers are allowed to disclose to customers the routing of the customers’ orders.A.	TrueB.	False8.	It is a totally anonymous matching of buy and sell orders.A.	alternative trading systemB.	electronic exchangeC.	electronics communication networkD.	physical exchange9.	Which of the following are/were physical exchanges?(Select all that apply.)A.	Cincinnati Stock ExchangeB.	New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)C.	Pacific Stock ExchangeD.	Philadelphia Stock Exchange10.	Which of the following is true about penny stocks?(Select all that apply.)A.	They are sold on the over-the-counter bulletin board.B.	They are unsolicited orders.C.	They are traded on the NASDAQ and other listed exchanges.D.	They sell at less than $5.11.	The broker is not required to assess a penny stock buyer’s financial situation if the buyer is a/an ___.(Select all that apply.)A.	accredited investorB.	client whose order is unsolicitedC.	insiderD.	interstate citizen12.	It is trading on nonpublic material information on the company.A.	front runningB.	insider tradingC.	peggingD.	wash trade13.	This is the catchall rule that prohibits anything fraud even if it is not specifically prohibited in the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.A.	Rule 10b-5B.	Rule 127-cC.	Rule 144AD.	Rule 14514.	For unlawful practices under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, suits can be brought within ___ of discovery.A.	six monthsB.	one yearC.	two yearsD.	three years15.	If a control person owns a position of a stock and he wants to lock in his profit or loss, he can ___.A.	dribble outB.	peg the stockC.	short against the boxD.	short sell the stock16.	Anybody that has nonpublic material information on the company is considered an insider.A.	TrueB.	False17.	In the United Sates, they are exempted from the rules that prohibit insider trading.(Select all that apply.)A.	congressmenB.	directors of the companyC.	officers of the companyD.	senators18.	Insiders can trade on the material nonpublic information once the information has been made public.A.	TrueB.	False19.	Only the Securities and Exchange Commission can sue insider traders.A.	TrueB.	False20.	The statute of limitation for insider trading is ___.A.	one yearB.	three yearsC.	five yearsD.	ten yearsWe hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 23 Securities Act of 1933 QuizTotal Course 37 hours 10 Min

SIE Exam Lesson 23 Securities Act of 1933 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 23 Securities Act of 1933 Quiz , See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1.	Which of the following is true about the Securities Exchange Act of 1934? (Select all that apply.) A.	It applies to exempt securities. B.	It determines what fair trading practices are. C.	It regulates the secondary trading of securities. D.	It was established by the Securities and Exchange Commission. 2.	Which of the following is contained in a 10-K? (Select all that apply.) A.	balance sheet B.	cash flow statement C.	compensation of officers D.	income statement 3.	The 10-Q is an audited financial report submitted quarterly to the Securities and Exchange Commission. A.	True B.	False 4.	A ___ is filed if the company changes its name or there’s a 5% or greater change in the number of shares outstanding. A.	10-C B.	13-G C.	15-B D.	8-K 5.	Which of the following is required from the broker-dealers by the Securities Exchange Act of 1934? (Select all that apply.) A.	buy back stocks for customers that reneged on their transactions B.	electronically deliver clients’ confirmation and statements C.	maintain a minimum net capital D.	send customers a copy of their income statement 6.	Under ___, margins are regulated from brokers to their customers. A.	Regulation D B.	Regulation M C.	Regulation T D.	Regulation U 7.	Broker-dealers are allowed to disclose to customers the routing of the customers’ orders. A.	True B.	False 8.	It is a totally anonymous matching of buy and sell orders. A.	alternative trading system B.	electronic exchange C.	electronics communication network D.	physical exchange 9.	Which of the following are/were physical exchanges? (Select all that apply.) A.	Cincinnati Stock Exchange B.	New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) C.	Pacific Stock Exchange D.	Philadelphia Stock Exchange 10.	Which of the following is true about penny stocks? (Select all that apply.) A.	They are sold on the over-the-counter bulletin board. B.	They are unsolicited orders. C.	They are traded on the NASDAQ and other listed exchanges. D.	They sell at less than $5. 11.	The broker is not required to assess a penny stock buyer’s financial situation if the buyer is a/an ___. (Select all that apply.) A.	accredited investor B.	client whose order is unsolicited C.	insider D.	interstate citizen 12.	It is trading on nonpublic material information on the company. A.	front running B.	insider trading C.	pegging D.	wash trade 13.	This is the catchall rule that prohibits anything fraud even if it is not specifically prohibited in the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. A.	Rule 10b-5 B.	Rule 127-c C.	Rule 144A D.	Rule 145 14.	For unlawful practices under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, suits can be brought within ___ of discovery. A.	six months B.	one year C.	two years D.	three years 15.	If a control person owns a position of a stock and he wants to lock in his profit or loss, he can ___. A.	dribble out B.	peg the stock C.	short against the box D.	short sell the stock 16.	Anybody that has nonpublic material information on the company is considered an insider. A.	True B.	False 17.	In the United Sates, they are exempted from the rules that prohibit insider trading. (Select all that apply.) A.	congressmen B.	directors of the company C.	officers of the company D.	senators 18.	Insiders can trade on the material nonpublic information once the information has been made public. A.	True B.	False 19.	Only the Securities and Exchange Commission can sue insider traders. A.	True B.	False 20.	The statute of limitation for insider trading is ___. A.	one year B.	three years C.	five years D.	ten years We hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 23 Securities Act of 1933 Quiz Total Course 37 hours 10 Min

SIE Exam Lesson 23 Securities Act of 1933 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 22 Annuities Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trust Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds pt 3 QuizSIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds pt 3 QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds pt 3 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1.	Which of the following is true about hedge funds?(Select all that apply.)A.	They are not allowed to cut off withdrawals by their investors.B.	They are open to any kind of investor.C.	They charge a management fee.D.	They have a cap on the amount that is available to be withdrawn at any given time.2.	What is the minimum capital for a hedge fund?A.	$100,000B.	$200,000C.	$500,000D.	$1,000,0003.	Which of the following is qualified as an accredited investor according to the Securities Act of 1933?(Select all that apply.)A.	a bankB.	a charitable organization with a total asset of $5 millionC.	a trust with a total asset of $10 millionD.	an employee benefit plan that has a total asset of $3 million4.	A business is qualified to be an accredited investor if all its equity owners are accredited investors.A.	TrueB.	False5.	A natural person can be an accredited investor if that person ___.(Select all that apply.)A.	has an income exceeding $200,000 in each of the two most recent years and a reasonable expectation of the same income level in the current yearB.	has individual net worth that exceeds $1 million including the value of the primary residence of such personC.	has a joint income with the spouse exceeding $200,000 in each of the two most recent years and a reasonable expectation of the same income in the current yearD.	has a joint net worth with the person’s spouse that exceeds $1 million excluding the value of the primary residence of such person6.	The performance of a hedge fund is always better than the market.A.	TrueB.	False7.	Which of the following strategies does a hedge fund employ?(Select all that apply.)A.	global macro hedge fund strategyB.	relative value arbitrageC.	high-frequency tradingD.	currency strategies8.	A mutual fund’s annual and semiannual report has an income statement similar to a regular corporate income statement.A.	TrueB.	False9.	Which of the following can be found in a mutual fund’s income statement?(Select all that apply.)A.	dividendsB.	capital gainsC.	expensesD.	net income10.	Which of the following is true about expense ratio?(Select all that apply.)A.	It applies to closed-end funds but not to open-end funds.B.	It gives an overall look at how much it costs to pay the management to buy the stocks instead of buying it yourself without paying any management fee.C.	It is the total net assets divided by the total expenses.D.	It shows the efficiency of the fund.11.	If you’re buying a fund at a very big discount but has a very high expense ratio, the discount you’re buying those stocks may disappear.A.	TrueB.	False12.	An investment company should distribute at least ___ of its income in order to be regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940.A.	80%B.	85%C.	90%D.	95%13.	If an investment company is not regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940, ___.A.	it becomes taxed as a regular corporationB.	it has to pay an additional tax equivalent to 2% of the total capital gainsC.	it will require double management feesD.	its net pass is not taxed14.	Investment companies can pass through capital gains ___.A.	monthlyB.	quarterlyC.	semiannuallyD.	at the end of the year15.	An investor buying a mutual fund at the end of the year will not be paying taxes if he has not made any money in the fund.A.	TrueB.	False16.	It is a type of mutual fund having a portfolio that is constructed to mimic the market index.A.	closed-end fundB.	exchange traded fundC.	index fundD.	open-end fund17.	These funds are traded as regular stocks on the stock exchange, but move throughout the day.A.	closed-end fundB.

SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds pt 3 Quiz SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds pt 3 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds pt 3 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1.	Which of the following is true about hedge funds? (Select all that apply.) A.	They are not allowed to cut off withdrawals by their investors. B.	They are open to any kind of investor. C.	They charge a management fee. D.	They have a cap on the amount that is available to be withdrawn at any given time. 2.	What is the minimum capital for a hedge fund? A.	$100,000 B.	$200,000 C.	$500,000 D.	$1,000,000 3.	Which of the following is qualified as an accredited investor according to the Securities Act of 1933? (Select all that apply.) A.	a bank B.	a charitable organization with a total asset of $5 million C.	a trust with a total asset of $10 million D.	an employee benefit plan that has a total asset of $3 million 4.	A business is qualified to be an accredited investor if all its equity owners are accredited investors. A.	True B.	False 5.	A natural person can be an accredited investor if that person ___. (Select all that apply.) A.	has an income exceeding $200,000 in each of the two most recent years and a reasonable expectation of the same income level in the current year B.	has individual net worth that exceeds $1 million including the value of the primary residence of such person C.	has a joint income with the spouse exceeding $200,000 in each of the two most recent years and a reasonable expectation of the same income in the current year D.	has a joint net worth with the person’s spouse that exceeds $1 million excluding the value of the primary residence of such person 6.	The performance of a hedge fund is always better than the market. A.	True B.	False 7.	Which of the following strategies does a hedge fund employ? (Select all that apply.) A.	global macro hedge fund strategy B.	relative value arbitrage C.	high-frequency trading D.	currency strategies 8.	A mutual fund’s annual and semiannual report has an income statement similar to a regular corporate income statement. A.	True B.	False 9.	Which of the following can be found in a mutual fund’s income statement? (Select all that apply.) A.	dividends B.	capital gains C.	expenses D.	net income 10.	Which of the following is true about expense ratio? (Select all that apply.) A.	It applies to closed-end funds but not to open-end funds. B.	It gives an overall look at how much it costs to pay the management to buy the stocks instead of buying it yourself without paying any management fee. C.	It is the total net assets divided by the total expenses. D.	It shows the efficiency of the fund. 11.	If you’re buying a fund at a very big discount but has a very high expense ratio, the discount you’re buying those stocks may disappear. A.	True B.	False 12.	An investment company should distribute at least ___ of its income in order to be regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940. A.	80% B.	85% C.	90% D.	95% 13.	If an investment company is not regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940, ___. A.	it becomes taxed as a regular corporation B.	it has to pay an additional tax equivalent to 2% of the total capital gains C.	it will require double management fees D.	its net pass is not taxed 14.	Investment companies can pass through capital gains ___. A.	monthly B.	quarterly C.	semiannually D.	at the end of the year 15.	An investor buying a mutual fund at the end of the year will not be paying taxes if he has not made any money in the fund. A.	True B.	False 16.	It is a type of mutual fund having a portfolio that is constructed to mimic the market index. A.	closed-end fund B.	exchange traded fund C.	index fund D.	open-end fund 17.	These funds are traded as regular stocks on the stock exchange, but move throughout the day. A.	closed-end fund B.

SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds pt 3 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 19 Mutual Funds pt 2 QuizSIE Exam Lesson 19 Mutual Funds pt 2 QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 19 Mutual Funds pt 2 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1.	Which of the following is true about closed-end funds?(Select all that apply.)A.	It can trade at a premium or at discount to net asset value.B.	It is redeemed.C.	It has a fixed maturity and interest rate.D.	It trades as a common stock on the exchanges wherever it is listed.2.	Which of the following details can be found on the website of the company that sponsors a closed-end fund?(Select all that apply.)A.	discount to net asset valueB.	net asset valueC.	premiumD.	price of the stock3.	It is the amount annually collected from the shareholders, which include all the operating cost of the fund.A.	conversion ratioB.	expense ratioC.	liquidity ratioD.	Sharpe ratio4.	If a closed-end fund has a very high expense ratio, one reason you might wish to buy the fund is because ___. A.	it is sold at net asset valueB.	it is sold at net asset value less than the expense ratioC.	it is sold at par valueD.	it is sold at a big discount to net asset value5.	In financial industry, “Red Herring” refers to ___.A.	expense ratioB.	hedge fundsC.	master limited partnershipsD.	preliminary prospectus6.	Which of the following is true about a preliminary prospectus?(Select all that apply.)A.	It contains the price of shares agreed upon.B.	It contains the total number of shares issued.C.	It does not contain the price of shares agreed upon.D.	It does not contain the total number of shares issued.7.	One way that funds will get a higher return than the market average or a bigger loss than the market average is by leveraging their assets.A.	TrueB.	False8.	A fund is leveraged at 9.2%. If it has $80,000,000 in its assets, the portfolio would reflect a value of ___.A.	$7,360,000B.	$72,640,000C.	$73,600,000D.	$87,360,0009.	Leveraged funds enhance returns and outperform the market when stocks are going down.A.	TrueB.	False10.	A mutual fund or a management company must distribute their income ___.A.	annuallyB.	monthlyC.	quarterlyD.	weekly11.	A management company distributes its income in a form of ___.(Select all that apply.)A.	capital gainsB.	commissionsC.	dividendsD.	interest12.	These are capital gains that the management company must distribute at least on an annual basis.A.	capital yieldB.	distribution yieldC.	dividend yieldD.	income yield13.	Dividend yield is the dividend that is paid out from the stocks that the management company owns and then passed through to the investors.A.	TrueB.	False14.	If you buy a closed-end fund before or close to the record date, your net asset value would decline by the amount of the distribution.A.	TrueB.	False15.	What would be a good reason for management companies to organize as master limited partnerships?A.	They want to acquire big positions in closed-end funds.B.	They want to avoid the double taxation.C.	They want to decrease their management expenses.D.	They want to increase their management fees.16.	It is a tax document of a master limited partnership.A.	1099-DIVB.	1601FC.	CF-213D.	K-117.	Why would a management company organize as a closed-end fund instead of an open-end fund?A.	Closed-end funds generally have higher sales commission than open-end funds.B.	In closed-end funds, managers may have to sell into a down market to raise money to pay for redemption.C.	In closed-end funds, managers will not be forced to redeem shares when the market is weak.D.	Unlike open-end funds, closed-end funds are more secure with specific maturity and interest rate.18.	A mutual fund held in another mutual fund would have double management fees.A.	TrueB.	False19.	The management fees of closed end funds ___.

SIE Exam Lesson 19 Mutual Funds pt 2 Quiz SIE Exam Lesson 19 Mutual Funds pt 2 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 19 Mutual Funds pt 2 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1.	Which of the following is true about closed-end funds? (Select all that apply.) A.	It can trade at a premium or at discount to net asset value. B.	It is redeemed. C.	It has a fixed maturity and interest rate. D.	It trades as a common stock on the exchanges wherever it is listed. 2.	Which of the following details can be found on the website of the company that sponsors a closed-end fund? (Select all that apply.) A.	discount to net asset value B.	net asset value C.	premium D.	price of the stock 3.	It is the amount annually collected from the shareholders, which include all the operating cost of the fund. A.	conversion ratio B.	expense ratio C.	liquidity ratio D.	Sharpe ratio 4.	If a closed-end fund has a very high expense ratio, one reason you might wish to buy the fund is because ___. A.	it is sold at net asset value B.	it is sold at net asset value less than the expense ratio C.	it is sold at par value D.	it is sold at a big discount to net asset value 5.	In financial industry, “Red Herring” refers to ___. A.	expense ratio B.	hedge funds C.	master limited partnerships D.	preliminary prospectus 6.	Which of the following is true about a preliminary prospectus? (Select all that apply.) A.	It contains the price of shares agreed upon. B.	It contains the total number of shares issued. C.	It does not contain the price of shares agreed upon. D.	It does not contain the total number of shares issued. 7.	One way that funds will get a higher return than the market average or a bigger loss than the market average is by leveraging their assets. A.	True B.	False 8.	A fund is leveraged at 9.2%. If it has $80,000,000 in its assets, the portfolio would reflect a value of ___. A.	$7,360,000 B.	$72,640,000 C.	$73,600,000 D.	$87,360,000 9.	Leveraged funds enhance returns and outperform the market when stocks are going down. A.	True B.	False 10.	A mutual fund or a management company must distribute their income ___. A.	annually B.	monthly C.	quarterly D.	weekly 11.	A management company distributes its income in a form of ___. (Select all that apply.) A.	capital gains B.	commissions C.	dividends D.	interest 12.	These are capital gains that the management company must distribute at least on an annual basis. A.	capital yield B.	distribution yield C.	dividend yield D.	income yield 13.	Dividend yield is the dividend that is paid out from the stocks that the management company owns and then passed through to the investors. A.	True B.	False 14.	If you buy a closed-end fund before or close to the record date, your net asset value would decline by the amount of the distribution. A.	True B.	False 15.	What would be a good reason for management companies to organize as master limited partnerships? A.	They want to acquire big positions in closed-end funds. B.	They want to avoid the double taxation. C.	They want to decrease their management expenses. D.	They want to increase their management fees. 16.	It is a tax document of a master limited partnership. A.	1099-DIV B.	1601F C.	CF-213 D.	K-1 17.	Why would a management company organize as a closed-end fund instead of an open-end fund? A.	Closed-end funds generally have higher sales commission than open-end funds. B.	In closed-end funds, managers may have to sell into a down market to raise money to pay for redemption. C.	In closed-end funds, managers will not be forced to redeem shares when the market is weak. D.	Unlike open-end funds, closed-end funds are more secure with specific maturity and interest rate. 18.	A mutual fund held in another mutual fund would have double management fees. A.	True B.	False 19.	The management fees of closed end funds ___.

SIE Exam Lesson 19 Mutual Funds pt 2 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 QuizSIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1.	Which of the following is an example of a mutual fund?(Select all that apply.)A.	corporate bond fundB.	balanced fundC.	hedge fundD.	junk bond fund2.	Which of the following is an example of an income fund?(Select all that apply.)A.	12b-1 fundB.	bond income fundC.	government bond income fundD.	utility stock income fund3.	Which of the following is an example of an open-end fund?(Select all that apply.)A.	12b-1 fundB.	accumulated fundC.	fee-based mutual fundD.	no load fund4.	Which of the following is a requirement in putting up an investment management company?(Select all that apply.)A.	custodian bankB.	financial lawyerC.	investment advisorD.	underwriter5.	It is anybody who has the ability to sponsor the mutual fund.A.	custodian bankB.	investment advisorC.	selling groupD.	underwriter6.	It is the document which outlines everything that the client needs to know about the mutual fund.A.	Investment Company Act of 1940B.	investment management company indentureC.	mutual fund contractD.	prospectus7.	Which of the following is contained in the prospectus?(Select all that apply.)A.	systematic withdrawal planB.	the name of the investment advisor and the custodian bank and their respective feesC.	the type of mutual fundD.	whether the fund is a diversified fund or not8.	The objectives of the fund is already fixed in the prospectus and can never be changed until all the funds are withdrawn.A.	TrueB.	False9.	Buying a mutual fund is buying a bond.A.	TrueB.	False10.	Mutual funds are not traded.A.	TrueB.	FalseSIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 Quiz cont.11.	Mutual funds allow the investor to switch within the family of funds with no sales charge.A.	TrueB.	False12.	In an open-end fund, there’s a one-time fee that the underwriter will get for selling the shares in that fund.A.	TrueB.	False13.	No load funds have no ___.A.	asking priceB.	bid priceC.	net asset valueD.	sales charge14.	The maximum sales charge for loaded funds is ___.A.	6 ¼ % of the net asset valueB.	6 ¼ % of the public offering priceC.	8 ½ % of the net asset valueD.	8 ½ % of the public offering price15.	If a loaded fund chooses to charge the maximum sales charge, it is also required to offer ___.(Select all that apply.)A.	breakpointsB.	letter of intentC.	principal reinvestmentD.	rights of accumulation16.	Which of the following is true about breakpoints?(Select all that apply.)A.	It can be obtained by investment clubs.B.	It is calculated only for individual investors.C.	It is detailed in the prospectus.D.	There is an increasing sales charge as the dollar amount goes up.17.	The maximum length on the letter of intent is ___.A.	12 months excluding 30 days backdatingB.	12 months including 30 days backdatingC.	13 months excluding the 90 days backdatingD.	13 months including the 90 days backdating18.	Which of the following is a characteristic of a diversified fund? (Select all that apply.)A.	Five percent or more of its assets can be invested in anyone issuer.B.	It has a fixed payment date.C.	Maximum of 10% of the voting shares of anyone issuer is allowed in the funds.D.	Seventy-five percent or more of its assets must be invested in securities.19.	Which of the following is the ideal type of 12b-1 fund for long-term investors?A.	Class AB.	Class BC.	Class CD.	Class D20.	Which of the following mutual fund sales practices is prohibited by the Investment Company Act of 1940?A.	accepting late orders after the market closesB.	offering a reduced sales charge if a client gets above a breakpointC.

SIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 Quiz SIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1.	Which of the following is an example of a mutual fund? (Select all that apply.) A.	corporate bond fund B.	balanced fund C.	hedge fund D.	junk bond fund 2.	Which of the following is an example of an income fund? (Select all that apply.) A.	12b-1 fund B.	bond income fund C.	government bond income fund D.	utility stock income fund 3.	Which of the following is an example of an open-end fund? (Select all that apply.) A.	12b-1 fund B.	accumulated fund C.	fee-based mutual fund D.	no load fund 4.	Which of the following is a requirement in putting up an investment management company? (Select all that apply.) A.	custodian bank B.	financial lawyer C.	investment advisor D.	underwriter 5.	It is anybody who has the ability to sponsor the mutual fund. A.	custodian bank B.	investment advisor C.	selling group D.	underwriter 6.	It is the document which outlines everything that the client needs to know about the mutual fund. A.	Investment Company Act of 1940 B.	investment management company indenture C.	mutual fund contract D.	prospectus 7.	Which of the following is contained in the prospectus? (Select all that apply.) A.	systematic withdrawal plan B.	the name of the investment advisor and the custodian bank and their respective fees C.	the type of mutual fund D.	whether the fund is a diversified fund or not 8.	The objectives of the fund is already fixed in the prospectus and can never be changed until all the funds are withdrawn. A.	True B.	False 9.	Buying a mutual fund is buying a bond. A.	True B.	False 10.	Mutual funds are not traded. A.	True B.	False SIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 Quiz cont. 11.	Mutual funds allow the investor to switch within the family of funds with no sales charge. A.	True B.	False 12.	In an open-end fund, there’s a one-time fee that the underwriter will get for selling the shares in that fund. A.	True B.	False 13.	No load funds have no ___. A.	asking price B.	bid price C.	net asset value D.	sales charge 14.	The maximum sales charge for loaded funds is ___. A.	6 ¼ % of the net asset value B.	6 ¼ % of the public offering price C.	8 ½ % of the net asset value D.	8 ½ % of the public offering price 15.	If a loaded fund chooses to charge the maximum sales charge, it is also required to offer ___. (Select all that apply.) A.	breakpoints B.	letter of intent C.	principal reinvestment D.	rights of accumulation 16.	Which of the following is true about breakpoints? (Select all that apply.) A.	It can be obtained by investment clubs. B.	It is calculated only for individual investors. C.	It is detailed in the prospectus. D.	There is an increasing sales charge as the dollar amount goes up. 17.	The maximum length on the letter of intent is ___. A.	12 months excluding 30 days backdating B.	12 months including 30 days backdating C.	13 months excluding the 90 days backdating D.	13 months including the 90 days backdating 18.	Which of the following is a characteristic of a diversified fund? (Select all that apply.) A.	Five percent or more of its assets can be invested in anyone issuer. B.	It has a fixed payment date. C.	Maximum of 10% of the voting shares of anyone issuer is allowed in the funds. D.	Seventy-five percent or more of its assets must be invested in securities. 19.	Which of the following is the ideal type of 12b-1 fund for long-term investors? A.	Class A B.	Class B C.	Class C D.	Class D 20.	Which of the following mutual fund sales practices is prohibited by the Investment Company Act of 1940? A.	accepting late orders after the market closes B.	offering a reduced sales charge if a client gets above a breakpoint C.

SIE Exam Lesson 18 Mutual Funds pt 1 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 QuizSIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1.	Which of the following does the Investment Company Act of 1940 regulate?(Select all that apply.)A.	open-end mutual fundsB.	closed-end mutual fundsC.	unit investment trustsD.	face-amount certificate companies2.	A hedge fund is regulated by the Investment Company Act of 1940.A.	TrueB.	False3.	Which of the following is an obsolete investment?A.	closed-end mutual fundB.	face-amount certificateC.	open-end mutual fundD.	unit investment trust4.	Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a face-amount certificate?A.	At the end of the maturity date, its investor would have a lump sum that is greater than the money he/she put in.B.	It has a fixed maturity date.C.	Its investor should pay a specific amount of money on a quarterly basis.D.	The money put on it is invested in very high quality securities.5.	These were used back then as guarantee when there was no mortgage yet and a bank makes a loan to an individual (i.e. to buy a house).A.	closed-end mutual fundB.	face-amount certificateC.	open-end mutual fundD.	unit investment trust6.	Open-end and closed-end mutual funds are run by ___.A.	face-amount certificate companiesB.	hedge fund companiesC.	investment management companiesD.	investment trust companies7.	A closed-end fund is very similar to a new issue on a stock.A.	TrueB.	False8.	An open-end fund is a mutual fund where you buy an interest in a pool of securities at ___.A.	net asset valueB.	net asset value plus interest rateC.	net asset value plus sales chargeD.	sales charge9.	The net asset value of an open-end fund is calculated ___.A.	everydayB.	every three business daysC.	every weekD.	every month10.	The net asset value of an open-end fund is the investor’s proportional interest in a basket of securities that are held by the mutual fund.A.	TrueB.	False11.	A unit investment trust has fixed portfolio for a specific set of time for a specific time period.A.	TrueB.	False12.	Which of the following is true about variable annuity?A.	It is a retirement investment plan.B.	It is invested in a fixed income investment portfolio.C.	It provides a fixed return.D.	all of the aboveWe hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 QuizTotal Course 37 hours 10 Min37 hours 10 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam59 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industrySecurities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE ExamThe full course details:37 hours 10 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam59 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industrySecurities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE ExamNew Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details.All candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Off Series 7 Exam. A Series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed..https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam 	“Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) ExamAvailable Beginning October 1, 2018The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry informa...

SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 Quiz SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 Quiz, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1.	Which of the following does the Investment Company Act of 1940 regulate? (Select all that apply.) A.	open-end mutual funds B.	closed-end mutual funds C.	unit investment trusts D.	face-amount certificate companies 2.	A hedge fund is regulated by the Investment Company Act of 1940. A.	True B.	False 3.	Which of the following is an obsolete investment? A.	closed-end mutual fund B.	face-amount certificate C.	open-end mutual fund D.	unit investment trust 4.	Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a face-amount certificate? A.	At the end of the maturity date, its investor would have a lump sum that is greater than the money he/she put in. B.	It has a fixed maturity date. C.	Its investor should pay a specific amount of money on a quarterly basis. D.	The money put on it is invested in very high quality securities. 5.	These were used back then as guarantee when there was no mortgage yet and a bank makes a loan to an individual (i.e. to buy a house). A.	closed-end mutual fund B.	face-amount certificate C.	open-end mutual fund D.	unit investment trust 6.	Open-end and closed-end mutual funds are run by ___. A.	face-amount certificate companies B.	hedge fund companies C.	investment management companies D.	investment trust companies 7.	A closed-end fund is very similar to a new issue on a stock. A.	True B.	False 8.	An open-end fund is a mutual fund where you buy an interest in a pool of securities at ___. A.	net asset value B.	net asset value plus interest rate C.	net asset value plus sales charge D.	sales charge 9.	The net asset value of an open-end fund is calculated ___. A.	everyday B.	every three business days C.	every week D.	every month 10.	The net asset value of an open-end fund is the investor’s proportional interest in a basket of securities that are held by the mutual fund. A.	True B.	False 11.	A unit investment trust has fixed portfolio for a specific set of time for a specific time period. A.	True B.	False 12.	Which of the following is true about variable annuity? A.	It is a retirement investment plan. B.	It is invested in a fixed income investment portfolio. C.	It provides a fixed return. D.	all of the above We hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 Quiz Total Course 37 hours 10 Min 37 hours 10 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 59 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam The full course details: 37 hours 10 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 59 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. All candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Off Series 7 Exam. A Series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam</a> 	“Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry informa...

SIE Exam Lesson 17 Investment Company Act of 1940 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 16 Options pt 6SIE Exam Lesson 16 Options pt 6This is a SIE Exam Lesson 16 Options pt 6  options pt.6 which is covering option combinations, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1. It is the purchasing and selling of put or call options with different strike prices, different expiration dates, or both.A. combinationB. spreadC. straddleD. strangle2. In a spread, when you close out one position, you are expected to close out the other position at the same time.A. TrueB. False3. The longer the option, the higher the time value premium.A. TrueB. False4. As an option approaches its expiration date, the time value on that option reaches its maximum value at the expiration of that option.A. TrueB. False5. This spread is designed to try to capture the decline of an option’s time value as the option approaches its expiration date.A. calendar spreadB. long call spreadC. long put spreadD. short call spread6. Which of the following is bearish?A. long call spreadB. short call spreadC. short put spreadD. all of the above7. The maximum profit for a long call spread is the net cost of the spread.A. TrueB. False8. A short call spread is a credit spread.A. TrueB. False9. You bought Jan 80 call at $10 and sold Feb 80 call at $20. Stock trades at $100 at expiration. Feb 80 call has $5 time value left. Which is true?(Note: This transaction is a calendar spread. The expiration mentioned is the expiration of the call option on January.)A. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $5.B. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $20.C. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $25.D. The February 80 call would expire worthless.10. You bought Nov 30 call at $3 and sold Dec 30 call at $5. Stock trades at $25 at Nov expiration. Dec 30 call has $1 time value left. Which is true?(Note: This transaction is a calendar spread.)A. The November 30 call would expire worthless.B. The December 30 call would expire worthless.C. You would have a net profit of $2 by closing your position on the spread.D. all of the above11. You bought Mar 60 call at $5 and sold Apr 70 call at $3. This transaction is most probably a ___.A. long call spreadB. long put spreadC. short call spreadD. short put spread12. You initiated a long call spread by buying Sept 70 call at $10 and selling Oct 80 call at $5. What is your maximum profit in this transaction?A. $5B. $10C. $15D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given.13. You initiated a long call spread by buying May 100 call at $15 and selling June 85 call at $8. What is your maximum loss in this transaction?A. $7B. $8C. $15D. $2314. If you enter into a long call spread, which of the following pair of transactions would give you the greatest possible profit?A. buying a July 30 call at $5 and selling an August 50 call at $4B. buying a July 25 call at $6 and selling an August 40 call at $5C. buying a July 40 call at $9 and selling an August 60 call at $5D. All of the above transactions have equal maximum profit15. You initiated a short call spread by buying a Jan 40 call at $4 and selling a Feb 30 call at $7. What is your maximum profit in this transaction?A. $3B. $7C. $11D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given.16. If you enter into a short call spread, which of the following transactions would you pair with buying a Nov 65 call at $6 to have the greatest possible profit?A. selling a December 60 call at $7 per shareB. selling a December 50 call at $8 per shareC. selling a December 40 call at $9 per shareD. The greatest possible profit would depend upon the highest price that the stock could get.17. You entered into a long put spread by buying Aug 95 put at $15 and selling Sept 75 put at $9.

SIE Exam Lesson 16 Options pt 6 SIE Exam Lesson 16 Options pt 6 This is a SIE Exam Lesson 16 Options pt 6  options pt.6 which is covering option combinations, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1. It is the purchasing and selling of put or call options with different strike prices, different expiration dates, or both. A. combination B. spread C. straddle D. strangle 2. In a spread, when you close out one position, you are expected to close out the other position at the same time. A. True B. False 3. The longer the option, the higher the time value premium. A. True B. False 4. As an option approaches its expiration date, the time value on that option reaches its maximum value at the expiration of that option. A. True B. False 5. This spread is designed to try to capture the decline of an option’s time value as the option approaches its expiration date. A. calendar spread B. long call spread C. long put spread D. short call spread 6. Which of the following is bearish? A. long call spread B. short call spread C. short put spread D. all of the above 7. The maximum profit for a long call spread is the net cost of the spread. A. True B. False 8. A short call spread is a credit spread. A. True B. False 9. You bought Jan 80 call at $10 and sold Feb 80 call at $20. Stock trades at $100 at expiration. Feb 80 call has $5 time value left. Which is true? (Note: This transaction is a calendar spread. The expiration mentioned is the expiration of the call option on January.) A. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $5. B. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $20. C. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $25. D. The February 80 call would expire worthless. 10. You bought Nov 30 call at $3 and sold Dec 30 call at $5. Stock trades at $25 at Nov expiration. Dec 30 call has $1 time value left. Which is true? (Note: This transaction is a calendar spread.) A. The November 30 call would expire worthless. B. The December 30 call would expire worthless. C. You would have a net profit of $2 by closing your position on the spread. D. all of the above 11. You bought Mar 60 call at $5 and sold Apr 70 call at $3. This transaction is most probably a ___. A. long call spread B. long put spread C. short call spread D. short put spread 12. You initiated a long call spread by buying Sept 70 call at $10 and selling Oct 80 call at $5. What is your maximum profit in this transaction? A. $5 B. $10 C. $15 D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given. 13. You initiated a long call spread by buying May 100 call at $15 and selling June 85 call at $8. What is your maximum loss in this transaction? A. $7 B. $8 C. $15 D. $23 14. If you enter into a long call spread, which of the following pair of transactions would give you the greatest possible profit? A. buying a July 30 call at $5 and selling an August 50 call at $4 B. buying a July 25 call at $6 and selling an August 40 call at $5 C. buying a July 40 call at $9 and selling an August 60 call at $5 D. All of the above transactions have equal maximum profit 15. You initiated a short call spread by buying a Jan 40 call at $4 and selling a Feb 30 call at $7. What is your maximum profit in this transaction? A. $3 B. $7 C. $11 D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given. 16. If you enter into a short call spread, which of the following transactions would you pair with buying a Nov 65 call at $6 to have the greatest possible profit? A. selling a December 60 call at $7 per share B. selling a December 50 call at $8 per share C. selling a December 40 call at $9 per share D. The greatest possible profit would depend upon the highest price that the stock could get. 17. You entered into a long put spread by buying Aug 95 put at $15 and selling Sept 75 put at $9.

SIE Exam Lesson 16 Options pt 6 Quiz

SIE Exam: Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Lessons and Information for the FINRA SIE Exam

SIE Exam Lesson 15 Options pt 5SIE Exam Lesson 15 Options pt 5This is a SIE Exam Lesson 15 Options pt 5  options pt.1 which is covering spread options, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1. It is the purchasing and selling of put or call options with different strike prices, different expiration dates, or both.A. combinationB. spreadC. straddleD. strangle2. In a spread, when you close out one position, you are expected to close out the other position at the same time.A. TrueB. False3. The longer the option, the higher the time value premium.A. TrueB. False4. As an option approaches its expiration date, the time value on that option reaches its maximum value at the expiration of that option.A. TrueB. False5. This spread is designed to try to capture the decline of an option’s time value as the option approaches its expiration date.A. calendar spreadB. long call spreadC. long put spreadD. short call spread6. Which of the following is bearish?A. long call spreadB. short call spreadC. short put spreadD. all of the above7. The maximum profit for a long call spread is the net cost of the spread.A. TrueB. False8. A short call spread is a credit spread.A. TrueB. False9. You bought Jan 80 call at $10 and sold Feb 80 call at $20. Stock trades at $100 at expiration. Feb 80 call has $5 time value left. Which is true?(Note: This transaction is a calendar spread. The expiration mentioned is the expiration of the call option on January.)A. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $5.B. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $20.C. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $25.D. The February 80 call would expire worthless.10. You bought Nov 30 call at $3 and sold Dec 30 call at $5. Stock trades at $25 at Nov expiration. Dec 30 call has $1 time value left. Which is true?(Note: This transaction is a calendar spread.)A. The November 30 call would expire worthless.B. The December 30 call would expire worthless.C. You would have a net profit of $2 by closing your position on the spread.D. all of the above11. You bought Mar 60 call at $5 and sold Apr 70 call at $3. This transaction is most probably a ___.A. long call spreadB. long put spreadC. short call spreadD. short put spread12. You initiated a long call spread by buying Sept 70 call at $10 and selling Oct 80 call at $5. What is your maximum profit in this transaction?A. $5B. $10C. $15D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given.13. You initiated a long call spread by buying May 100 call at $15 and selling June 85 call at $8. What is your maximum loss in this transaction?A. $7B. $8C. $15D. $2314. If you enter into a long call spread, which of the following pair of transactions would give you the greatest possible profit?A. buying a July 30 call at $5 and selling an August 50 call at $4B. buying a July 25 call at $6 and selling an August 40 call at $5C. buying a July 40 call at $9 and selling an August 60 call at $5D. All of the above transactions have equal maximum profit15. You initiated a short call spread by buying a Jan 40 call at $4 and selling a Feb 30 call at $7. What is your maximum profit in this transaction?A. $3B. $7C. $11D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given.16. If you enter into a short call spread, which of the following transactions would you pair with buying a Nov 65 call at $6 to have the greatest possible profit?A. selling a December 60 call at $7 per shareB. selling a December 50 call at $8 per shareC. selling a December 40 call at $9 per shareD. The greatest possible profit would depend upon the highest price that the stock could get.17. You entered into a long put spread by buying Aug 95 put at $15 and selling Sept 75 put at $9.

SIE Exam Lesson 15 Options pt 5 SIE Exam Lesson 15 Options pt 5 This is a SIE Exam Lesson 15 Options pt 5  options pt.1 which is covering spread options, See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1. It is the purchasing and selling of put or call options with different strike prices, different expiration dates, or both. A. combination B. spread C. straddle D. strangle 2. In a spread, when you close out one position, you are expected to close out the other position at the same time. A. True B. False 3. The longer the option, the higher the time value premium. A. True B. False 4. As an option approaches its expiration date, the time value on that option reaches its maximum value at the expiration of that option. A. True B. False 5. This spread is designed to try to capture the decline of an option’s time value as the option approaches its expiration date. A. calendar spread B. long call spread C. long put spread D. short call spread 6. Which of the following is bearish? A. long call spread B. short call spread C. short put spread D. all of the above 7. The maximum profit for a long call spread is the net cost of the spread. A. True B. False 8. A short call spread is a credit spread. A. True B. False 9. You bought Jan 80 call at $10 and sold Feb 80 call at $20. Stock trades at $100 at expiration. Feb 80 call has $5 time value left. Which is true? (Note: This transaction is a calendar spread. The expiration mentioned is the expiration of the call option on January.) A. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $5. B. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $20. C. You shall buy back the February 80 call at $25. D. The February 80 call would expire worthless. 10. You bought Nov 30 call at $3 and sold Dec 30 call at $5. Stock trades at $25 at Nov expiration. Dec 30 call has $1 time value left. Which is true? (Note: This transaction is a calendar spread.) A. The November 30 call would expire worthless. B. The December 30 call would expire worthless. C. You would have a net profit of $2 by closing your position on the spread. D. all of the above 11. You bought Mar 60 call at $5 and sold Apr 70 call at $3. This transaction is most probably a ___. A. long call spread B. long put spread C. short call spread D. short put spread 12. You initiated a long call spread by buying Sept 70 call at $10 and selling Oct 80 call at $5. What is your maximum profit in this transaction? A. $5 B. $10 C. $15 D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given. 13. You initiated a long call spread by buying May 100 call at $15 and selling June 85 call at $8. What is your maximum loss in this transaction? A. $7 B. $8 C. $15 D. $23 14. If you enter into a long call spread, which of the following pair of transactions would give you the greatest possible profit? A. buying a July 30 call at $5 and selling an August 50 call at $4 B. buying a July 25 call at $6 and selling an August 40 call at $5 C. buying a July 40 call at $9 and selling an August 60 call at $5 D. All of the above transactions have equal maximum profit 15. You initiated a short call spread by buying a Jan 40 call at $4 and selling a Feb 30 call at $7. What is your maximum profit in this transaction? A. $3 B. $7 C. $11 D. The maximum profit cannot be determined because the stock price is not given. 16. If you enter into a short call spread, which of the following transactions would you pair with buying a Nov 65 call at $6 to have the greatest possible profit? A. selling a December 60 call at $7 per share B. selling a December 50 call at $8 per share C. selling a December 40 call at $9 per share D. The greatest possible profit would depend upon the highest price that the stock could get. 17. You entered into a long put spread by buying Aug 95 put at $15 and selling Sept 75 put at $9.

SIE Exam Lesson 15 Options pt 5 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 14 Options pt 4SIE Exam Lesson 14 Options pt 4This is a SIE Exam Lesson 14 Options pt 4  options pt.1which is covering straddle options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered include1. It is a strategy of buying a put and a call with the same expiration date and the same strike price on the same company.A. combinationB. protective putC. spreadD. straddle2. The last trading day of options is ___.A. the date of the option’s expirationB. the date of the option’s expiration minus two business daysC. the last business day of the expiration monthD. the last trade day before the expiration date3. Options expire on ___.A. the first Friday of the expiration monthB. the second Friday of the expiration monthC. the third Friday of the expiration monthD. the last Friday of the expiration month4. It is a type of straddle wherein you sell the straddle.A. butterfly straddleB. condor straddleC. long straddleD. short straddle5. The cost of a straddle is equal to ___.A. the price determined by the seller of the straddleB. the strike price divided by the betaC. the sum of the intrinsic values of the call option and the put optionD. the sum of the premiums of the call option and the put option6. The risk in a long straddle is ___.A. the breakeven on the downsideB. the difference between the premiums of the call option and the put optionC. the premium of either the call option or the put option, whichever is higherD. the total premium you paid for both of the options included in the straddle7. The profit in a short straddle is ___.A. limited to the downside by the total price of the stock minus the premium you collectB. limited to the premium you collectC. limited to the upside by the total price of the stock plus the premium you collectD. unlimited to the movement of the price of the stock8. The breakeven for a short straddle is the same as the breakeven for a long straddle.A. TrueB. False9. In long straddles, the breakeven on the upside is where ___.A. the new stock price rises above the initial stock price plus the premium of the call optionB. the new stock price rises above the initial stock price plus the total premium of the call and put optionC. the strike price rises above the initial stock price plus the premium of the call optionD. the price of the stock rises above the strike price enough to cover the premiums paid for the put and call options10. In long straddles, the breakeven on the downside is where ___.A. the new stock price falls below the initial stock price minus the premium of the put optionB. the new stock price rises above the initial stock price plus the total premium of the call and put optionC. the price of the stock falls below the strike price enough to cover the premiums paid for the put and call optionsD. the strike price rises above the initial stock price plus the total premium of the call option and put option11. In a long straddle, you make profit as long as the stock moved outside the breakeven on the upside and the breakeven on the downside.A. TrueB. False12. In a short straddle, you lose money when the stock stays within the breakeven on the upside and the breakeven on the downside.A. TrueB. False13. If you’re looking at buying a straddle, you’re looking for volatility; if you’re looking to sell a short straddle, you’re looking for stability.A. TrueB. False14. In theory, a stock with a high beta should have lower option prices than a stock with a low beta.A. TrueB. False15. A stock’s price is $35. The strike price is $30, the call premium is $5.50, and the put premium is $1. What is the breakeven on the upside?A. $34.50B. $36.50C. $39.50D. $40.5016. A stock’s price is $80. The strike price is $78, the call premium is $5, and the put premium is $3. What is the breakeven on the downside?

SIE Exam Lesson 14 Options pt 4 SIE Exam Lesson 14 Options pt 4 This is a SIE Exam Lesson 14 Options pt 4  options pt.1which is covering straddle options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include 1. It is a strategy of buying a put and a call with the same expiration date and the same strike price on the same company. A. combination B. protective put C. spread D. straddle 2. The last trading day of options is ___. A. the date of the option’s expiration B. the date of the option’s expiration minus two business days C. the last business day of the expiration month D. the last trade day before the expiration date 3. Options expire on ___. A. the first Friday of the expiration month B. the second Friday of the expiration month C. the third Friday of the expiration month D. the last Friday of the expiration month 4. It is a type of straddle wherein you sell the straddle. A. butterfly straddle B. condor straddle C. long straddle D. short straddle 5. The cost of a straddle is equal to ___. A. the price determined by the seller of the straddle B. the strike price divided by the beta C. the sum of the intrinsic values of the call option and the put option D. the sum of the premiums of the call option and the put option 6. The risk in a long straddle is ___. A. the breakeven on the downside B. the difference between the premiums of the call option and the put option C. the premium of either the call option or the put option, whichever is higher D. the total premium you paid for both of the options included in the straddle 7. The profit in a short straddle is ___. A. limited to the downside by the total price of the stock minus the premium you collect B. limited to the premium you collect C. limited to the upside by the total price of the stock plus the premium you collect D. unlimited to the movement of the price of the stock 8. The breakeven for a short straddle is the same as the breakeven for a long straddle. A. True B. False 9. In long straddles, the breakeven on the upside is where ___. A. the new stock price rises above the initial stock price plus the premium of the call option B. the new stock price rises above the initial stock price plus the total premium of the call and put option C. the strike price rises above the initial stock price plus the premium of the call option D. the price of the stock rises above the strike price enough to cover the premiums paid for the put and call options 10. In long straddles, the breakeven on the downside is where ___. A. the new stock price falls below the initial stock price minus the premium of the put option B. the new stock price rises above the initial stock price plus the total premium of the call and put option C. the price of the stock falls below the strike price enough to cover the premiums paid for the put and call options D. the strike price rises above the initial stock price plus the total premium of the call option and put option 11. In a long straddle, you make profit as long as the stock moved outside the breakeven on the upside and the breakeven on the downside. A. True B. False 12. In a short straddle, you lose money when the stock stays within the breakeven on the upside and the breakeven on the downside. A. True B. False 13. If you’re looking at buying a straddle, you’re looking for volatility; if you’re looking to sell a short straddle, you’re looking for stability. A. True B. False 14. In theory, a stock with a high beta should have lower option prices than a stock with a low beta. A. True B. False 15. A stock’s price is $35. The strike price is $30, the call premium is $5.50, and the put premium is $1. What is the breakeven on the upside? A. $34.50 B. $36.50 C. $39.50 D. $40.50 16. A stock’s price is $80. The strike price is $78, the call premium is $5, and the put premium is $3. What is the breakeven on the downside?

SIE Exam Lesson 14 Options pt 4 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3This is a SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3  options pt.1which is covering options pt. 1 basic option terminology of call and put options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered includeBelow are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer.To take the quiz online, click here.Quiz Options Part 31. It refers to the number of options that are currently trading in the market.A. breakeven pointB. open interestC. utilityD. volatility2. The following increases open interest EXCEPT:A. buying to closeB. buying to openC. selling to openD. All of the above increase open interest.3. If you bought an option and you want to sell it, the market price of the option would be ___.A. the option’s time value at expiration dateB. the option’s intrinsic value at expiration dateC. the option’s intrinsic value when you bought the optionD. the option’s premium4. Which of the following factors least affect the premium of an option?A. dividendB. interest rateC. option time periodD. volatility5. If you want to short a stock and interest rates are high, you have to pay higher margin interest rates.A. TrueB. False6. Utility stocks used to be referred to as ___.A. county stocksB. growth stocksC. value stocksD. widow-and-orphan stocks7. Why do utility stocks often have low premium options?A. Utility stocks often have high income.B. Utility stocks often have high volatility.C. Utility stocks often have low income.D. Utility stocks often have low volatility.8. It is the measure of a stock’s volatility in relation to the market.A. betaB. thetaC. vegaD. veta9. Which of the following is NOT true about beta?A. A beta lower than one means that the stock moves more than the market does in general.B. A beta of one correlates equally with the market.C. High beta stocks will have higher option premiums.D. High dividend stocks have a lower beta.10. If you short a stock and the stock pays a dividend, you are required to pay the dividend when that dividend comes do.A. TrueB. FalseSIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3 cont:11. Compared to call premiums, put premiums are lower on a high dividend stock.A. TrueB. False12. Which of the following would yield a low option premium?A. An option with a high dividend on the stock.B. An option with a high volatility.C. An option with a long time period before expiration.D. all of the above13. If you think the stock would go up, which is the best option strategy to take?A. Buy a long call option.B. Buy a long put option.C. Write a covered call.D. Write a naked call.14. Why is it wise to write a covered call when the stock would go down?A. so that the call option would not be exercised and you can keep the premiumB. so that you can buy the stock at a lower strike priceC. so that you can profit by selling the stock at a higher priceD. all of the above15. If you long a call, that gives you the right to buy the stock at a specific strike price.A. TrueB. False16. If you short a put, you are obligated to deliver the stock if it is called away from you.A. TrueB. False17. A stock is selling at $50. A call option on that stock has a strike price of $70. The premium is $5. What is the breakeven for this option?A. $45B. $55C. $65D. $7518. You wrote a covered call for a stock. The stock price is $30. The stock’s premium is $10 and the strike price is $25. If the stock goes down to $20, which is unlikely to happen?A. The option holder would exercise his option.B. The option would expire worthless.C. You would breakeven at the time the stock goes down to $20.D. You would earn profit by collecting the premium.19. You wrote a covered call with a premium of $20 for a stock trading at $100.

SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3 SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3 This is a SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3  options pt.1which is covering options pt. 1 basic option terminology of call and put options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. Quiz Options Part 3 1. It refers to the number of options that are currently trading in the market. A. breakeven point B. open interest C. utility D. volatility 2. The following increases open interest EXCEPT: A. buying to close B. buying to open C. selling to open D. All of the above increase open interest. 3. If you bought an option and you want to sell it, the market price of the option would be ___. A. the option’s time value at expiration date B. the option’s intrinsic value at expiration date C. the option’s intrinsic value when you bought the option D. the option’s premium 4. Which of the following factors least affect the premium of an option? A. dividend B. interest rate C. option time period D. volatility 5. If you want to short a stock and interest rates are high, you have to pay higher margin interest rates. A. True B. False 6. Utility stocks used to be referred to as ___. A. county stocks B. growth stocks C. value stocks D. widow-and-orphan stocks 7. Why do utility stocks often have low premium options? A. Utility stocks often have high income. B. Utility stocks often have high volatility. C. Utility stocks often have low income. D. Utility stocks often have low volatility. 8. It is the measure of a stock’s volatility in relation to the market. A. beta B. theta C. vega D. veta 9. Which of the following is NOT true about beta? A. A beta lower than one means that the stock moves more than the market does in general. B. A beta of one correlates equally with the market. C. High beta stocks will have higher option premiums. D. High dividend stocks have a lower beta. 10. If you short a stock and the stock pays a dividend, you are required to pay the dividend when that dividend comes do. A. True B. False SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3 cont: 11. Compared to call premiums, put premiums are lower on a high dividend stock. A. True B. False 12. Which of the following would yield a low option premium? A. An option with a high dividend on the stock. B. An option with a high volatility. C. An option with a long time period before expiration. D. all of the above 13. If you think the stock would go up, which is the best option strategy to take? A. Buy a long call option. B. Buy a long put option. C. Write a covered call. D. Write a naked call. 14. Why is it wise to write a covered call when the stock would go down? A. so that the call option would not be exercised and you can keep the premium B. so that you can buy the stock at a lower strike price C. so that you can profit by selling the stock at a higher price D. all of the above 15. If you long a call, that gives you the right to buy the stock at a specific strike price. A. True B. False 16. If you short a put, you are obligated to deliver the stock if it is called away from you. A. True B. False 17. A stock is selling at $50. A call option on that stock has a strike price of $70. The premium is $5. What is the breakeven for this option? A. $45 B. $55 C. $65 D. $75 18. You wrote a covered call for a stock. The stock price is $30. The stock’s premium is $10 and the strike price is $25. If the stock goes down to $20, which is unlikely to happen? A. The option holder would exercise his option. B. The option would expire worthless. C. You would breakeven at the time the stock goes down to $20. D. You would earn profit by collecting the premium. 19. You wrote a covered call with a premium of $20 for a stock trading at $100.

SIE Exam Lesson 13 Options pt 3 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2This is a SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2  options pt.1which is covering options pt. 1 basic option terminology of call and put options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered includeBelow are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer.To take the quiz online, click here.Quiz Options Part 2Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer.To take the quiz online, click here.1.	It is the cost of an option.A.	bid priceB.	ask priceC.	premiumD.	strike price2.	The premium contains the option’s ___.A.	intrinsic valueB.	time valueC.	both intrinsic value and time valueD.	neither intrinsic value nor time value3.	This refers to the number of options that are open for trading in the market.A.	bidB.	volatilityC.	open interestD.	volume4.	This refers to the number of options that were sold or traded for the given day.A.	bidB.	volatilityC.	open interestD.	volume5.	It refers to the amount of uncertainty or risk about the size of changes in a security's value.A.	open interestB.	premiumC.	volatilityD.	volume6.	Parity is when the strike price and the stock are selling at exactly the same price.A.	TrueB.	False7.	An option is created by writing covered calls.A.	TrueB.	False8.	Writing a covered call ___.A.	decreases open interestB.	decreases volumeC.	increases open interestD.	increases volume9.	If a person wrote an option (such as a covered call) and is now buying back the option, he is opening a position.A.	TrueB.	False10.	Person A writes a covered call option and Person B buys that option. Which of the following is true?A.	Person A sells to close and Person B buys to close.B.	Person A sells to close and Person B buys to open.C.	Person A sells to open and Person B buys to close.D.	Person A sells to open and Person B buys to open.SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2 Cont:11.	This is used in determining the theoretical value of an option.A.	Black-Scholes modelB.	Fed modelC.	Sharpe ratioD.	Sortino ratio12.	It serves as an insurance to your investment portfolio.A.	covered callB.	married putC.	naked callD.	put on a put13.	An option without intrinsic value always has no time value.A.	TrueB.	False14.	A naked put is written by a person who owns the stock.A.	TrueB.	False15.	A call option is offered on a stock. If the current price of the stock is $20 and the strike price is $15, what is the intrinsic value of the option?A.	$2.5B.	$5C.	$10D.	There is no intrinsic value in this option.16.	A call option is offered on a stock. If the current price of the stock is $12 and the strike price is $10, what is the premium of the option?A.	$1B.	$2C.	$11D.	The premium of the option cannot be computed from the given facts.17.	A call option is offered on a stock. The current price of the stock is $20 and the strike price is $15. The call option’s premium is $8. What is the time value of the option?A.	$2 B.	$3 C.	$4D.	There is no time value for this option.18.	An option is selling at $6 per share and the option is for 10 shares. If you bought the option for a bid price of $5.50 per share, how much will you pay for the option for 10 shares?A.	$5.50B.	$6C.	$55D.	$6019.	If the stock is currently selling at $30 a share and you write a covered call for $40 a share, there is ___.A.	$10 in the money optionB.	$10 out of the money optionC.	$30 in the money optionD.	$40 out of the money option20.	You bought a married put with a strike price of $15. If the current price of the stock is $20, what is the intrinsic value of the option?A.	$2.5B.	$5C.	$10D.	There is no intrinsic value in this option.We hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2

SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2 SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2 This is a SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2  options pt.1which is covering options pt. 1 basic option terminology of call and put options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. Quiz Options Part 2 Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. 1.	It is the cost of an option. A.	bid price B.	ask price C.	premium D.	strike price 2.	The premium contains the option’s ___. A.	intrinsic value B.	time value C.	both intrinsic value and time value D.	neither intrinsic value nor time value 3.	This refers to the number of options that are open for trading in the market. A.	bid B.	volatility C.	open interest D.	volume 4.	This refers to the number of options that were sold or traded for the given day. A.	bid B.	volatility C.	open interest D.	volume 5.	It refers to the amount of uncertainty or risk about the size of changes in a security's value. A.	open interest B.	premium C.	volatility D.	volume 6.	Parity is when the strike price and the stock are selling at exactly the same price. A.	True B.	False 7.	An option is created by writing covered calls. A.	True B.	False 8.	Writing a covered call ___. A.	decreases open interest B.	decreases volume C.	increases open interest D.	increases volume 9.	If a person wrote an option (such as a covered call) and is now buying back the option, he is opening a position. A.	True B.	False 10.	Person A writes a covered call option and Person B buys that option. Which of the following is true? A.	Person A sells to close and Person B buys to close. B.	Person A sells to close and Person B buys to open. C.	Person A sells to open and Person B buys to close. D.	Person A sells to open and Person B buys to open. SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2 Cont: 11.	This is used in determining the theoretical value of an option. A.	Black-Scholes model B.	Fed model C.	Sharpe ratio D.	Sortino ratio 12.	It serves as an insurance to your investment portfolio. A.	covered call B.	married put C.	naked call D.	put on a put 13.	An option without intrinsic value always has no time value. A.	True B.	False 14.	A naked put is written by a person who owns the stock. A.	True B.	False 15.	A call option is offered on a stock. If the current price of the stock is $20 and the strike price is $15, what is the intrinsic value of the option? A.	$2.5 B.	$5 C.	$10 D.	There is no intrinsic value in this option. 16.	A call option is offered on a stock. If the current price of the stock is $12 and the strike price is $10, what is the premium of the option? A.	$1 B.	$2 C.	$11 D.	The premium of the option cannot be computed from the given facts. 17.	A call option is offered on a stock. The current price of the stock is $20 and the strike price is $15. The call option’s premium is $8. What is the time value of the option? A.	$2 B.	$3 C.	$4 D.	There is no time value for this option. 18.	An option is selling at $6 per share and the option is for 10 shares. If you bought the option for a bid price of $5.50 per share, how much will you pay for the option for 10 shares? A.	$5.50 B.	$6 C.	$55 D.	$60 19.	If the stock is currently selling at $30 a share and you write a covered call for $40 a share, there is ___. A.	$10 in the money option B.	$10 out of the money option C.	$30 in the money option D.	$40 out of the money option 20.	You bought a married put with a strike price of $15. If the current price of the stock is $20, what is the intrinsic value of the option? A.	$2.5 B.	$5 C.	$10 D.	There is no intrinsic value in this option. We hope you did well on this SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2

SIE Exam Lesson 12 Options pt 2 Quiz

SIE Exam Lesson 11 Options pt 1 Quiz SIE Exam Lesson 11 Options pt 1 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 11 Quiz  options pt.1which is covering options pt. 1 basic option terminology of call and put options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. Quiz Options Part 1   The oldest recorded option was about _____ getting options on the use of olive presses for a small price and charging olive growers exorbitant price for the use of those olive presses. A.  Nassim Taleb B.  Parmenides of Elea C.  Pythagoras D.  Thales of Miletus   It gives the holder or buyer of the option the right to purchase a specific number of shares of stock. A.  call option B.  order option C.  purchase option D.  put option   All of the following are needed in evaluating the value of an option EXCEPT ___. A.  expiration date of the option B.  interest rate C.  stock price D.  strike price   The premium is the price paid for an option. A.  True B.  False   Brokerage firms require same-day settlement on the options that are bought from them. A.  True B.  False   In a call option, it is the price at which the stock can be bought. A.  option price B.  option rate C.  stock price D.  strike price   Which of the following makes a call option valuable? A.  when the stock price is greater than the strike price after the expiration of the option B.  when the stock price is greater than the strike price before the expiration of the option C.  when the strike price is greater than the stock price after the expiration of the option D.  when the strike price is greater than the stock price before the expiration of the option   The more time you have on the option, the more expensive the option becomes. A.  True B.  False   In the “in the money option”, the strike price is above the current stock price. A.  True B.  False   It is the difference between the strike price and the current stock price when the strike price is lower than the current stock price. A.  absolute value B.  intrinsic value C.  option value D.  par value   SIE Exam Lesson 11 Options pt 1: Cont   If the stock price increases before the option expires, the intrinsic value of the option ___. A.  decreases B.  increases C.  remains constant D.  There is no direct relationship between the stock price and the intrinsic value of the option.   It is the price paid over the intrinsic value for the time period of the option. A.  premium value B.  premium intrinsic value C.  settlement value D.  time value   When the time value of the option declines to zero, what is left to the option at the time of expiration is its ___. A.  intrinsic value B.  par value C.  strike value D.  The time value will never decline to zero.   It is the right to sell the stock at a specific price. A.  call feature B.  call option C.  put feature D.  put option   In a put option, it is the price at which the stock can be sold. A.  option price B.  option rate C.  stock price D.  strike price   If the current price of the stock in the market is $60 and it was offered in a call option at a strike price is $50, what is the intrinsic value of the option? A.  $10 B.  $110 C.  $5 D.  $55   An option that has expired loses its intrinsic value. A.  True B.  False   If you bought a call option at a premium of $18 to buy a stock at $50 that is now selling in the market at $60, how much did you pay for the time value? A.  $10 B.  $18 C.  $8 D.  $9   If the current price of the stock in the market is $60 and the strike price is $50 in a put option, what is the intrinsic value of the put option? A.  $5 B.  $10 C.  $55 D.  The put option has no intrinsic value.   What value does an out of the money put option has? A.  intrinsic value only B.  time value only C.  

SIE Exam Lesson 11 Options pt 1 Quiz SIE Exam Lesson 11 Options pt 1 Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 11 Quiz  options pt.1which is covering options pt. 1 basic option terminology of call and put options See how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. Quiz Options Part 1 <ol> <li> The oldest recorded option was about _____ getting options on the use of olive presses for a small price and charging olive growers exorbitant price for the use of those olive presses. A. Nassim Taleb B. Parmenides of Elea C. Pythagoras D. Thales of Miletus </li> <li> It gives the holder or buyer of the option the right to purchase a specific number of shares of stock. A. call option B. order option C. purchase option D. put option </li> <li> All of the following are needed in evaluating the value of an option EXCEPT ___. A. expiration date of the option B. interest rate C. stock price D. strike price </li> <li> The premium is the price paid for an option. A. True B. False </li> <li> Brokerage firms require same-day settlement on the options that are bought from them. A. True B. False </li> <li> In a call option, it is the price at which the stock can be bought. A. option price B. option rate C. stock price D. strike price </li> <li> Which of the following makes a call option valuable? A. when the stock price is greater than the strike price after the expiration of the option B. when the stock price is greater than the strike price before the expiration of the option C. when the strike price is greater than the stock price after the expiration of the option D. when the strike price is greater than the stock price before the expiration of the option </li> <li> The more time you have on the option, the more expensive the option becomes. A. True B. False </li> <li> In the “in the money option”, the strike price is above the current stock price. A. True B. False </li> <li> It is the difference between the strike price and the current stock price when the strike price is lower than the current stock price. A. absolute value B. intrinsic value C. option value D. par value </li> </ol> SIE Exam Lesson 11 Options pt 1: Cont <ol> <li> If the stock price increases before the option expires, the intrinsic value of the option ___. A. decreases B. increases C. remains constant D. There is no direct relationship between the stock price and the intrinsic value of the option. </li> <li> It is the price paid over the intrinsic value for the time period of the option. A. premium value B. premium intrinsic value C. settlement value D. time value </li> <li> When the time value of the option declines to zero, what is left to the option at the time of expiration is its ___. A. intrinsic value B. par value C. strike value D. The time value will never decline to zero. </li> <li> It is the right to sell the stock at a specific price. A. call feature B. call option C. put feature D. put option </li> <li> In a put option, it is the price at which the stock can be sold. A. option price B. option rate C. stock price D. strike price </li> <li> If the current price of the stock in the market is $60 and it was offered in a call option at a strike price is $50, what is the intrinsic value of the option? A. $10 B. $110 C. $5 D. $55 </li> <li> An option that has expired loses its intrinsic value. A. True B. False </li> <li> If you bought a call option at a premium of $18 to buy a stock at $50 that is now selling in the market at $60, how much did you pay for the time value? A. $10 B. $18 C. $8 D. $9 </li> <li> If the current price of the stock in the market is $60 and the strike price is $50 in a put option, what is the intrinsic value of the put option? A. $5 B. $10 C. $55 D. The put option has no intrinsic value. </li> <li> What value does an out of the money put option has? A. intrinsic value only B. time value only C. </li> </ol>

SIE Exam Lesson 11 Options pt 1 Quiz

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz which is covering Credit Default Swaps, Adjustable Rate Securities and SPV'. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.SIE SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz which is coveringCredit Default Swaps, Adjustable Rate Securities and SPV's. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered includeBelow are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer.To take the quiz online, click here.1.	Which of the following are derivative type products?(Select all that apply.)A.	auction rate securitiesB.	credit default swapsC.	exchange-traded notesD.	market index-linked CDs2.	The reason you would buy a credit default swap if you are a speculator is you expect the credit worthiness of a company to ___.A.	go upB.	go downC.	be constantD.	be the same as the leading index on the market3.	Credit default swaps are traded ___.A.	on floorsB.	on the primary marketC.	on the secondary marketD.	over-the-counter4.	There is no limit to the number of credit default swaps that can be written on any specific position.A.	TrueB.	False5.	It is a credit default swap used as a hedge vehicle for a position.A.	covered CDSB.	indexed CDSC.	married CDSD.	naked CDS6.	It is a credit default swap for bonds that you speculate on but do not own.A.	covered CDSB.	indexed CDSC.	married CDSD.	naked CDS7.	How much would you pay for a credit default swap of a $50,000 worth of bonds that has a spread of 25 basis points?A.	$125B.	$200C.	$2,000D.	$12,5008.	In a Dutch auction, a person actually puts back the bond to the issuer.A.	TrueB.	False9.	It is the lowest rate where there are enough purchasers willing to buy all the auctionable securities at a Dutch auction.A.	auction rateB.	clearing rateC.	interest rateD.	market rate10.	In a Dutch auction, the clearing rate is reset ___.A.	every 7 daysB.	every 28 daysC.	every 35 daysD.	based on whatever is set in the offering circular or official statement SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz: Continued11.	In a Dutch auction, bids higher than the clearing rate will be able to buy the bonds.A.	TrueB.	False12.	Which of the following happens in the case of a failed auction?(Select all that apply.)A.	There are so many people putting back their bonds but so few people buying them.B.	There is no enough interest that develops in the market.C.	People could not get out of their positions.D.	People hold on to their auction rate securities at the minimum yield that was put in the bond covenant.13.	Which of the following are the risks in auction rate securities?(Select all that apply.)A.	counterparty riskB.	credit riskC.	marketability riskD.	suitability risk14.	Which of the following is true in a market index-linked CD?(Select all that apply.)A.	These are CDs with a yield equivalent to a portion of an index.B.	If the market goes up, you will participate equally on how much the upside of the market is.C.	If the market goes down, you are guaranteed that your principal will not fall below par.D.	If the bank issuing the CD goes bankrupt and the CD is not federally insured, you will not get back your principal. 15.	If you don’t hold on to a market index-linked CD until maturity, you’re entitled to participate in its upside as long as the CD is FDIC insured.A.	TrueB.	False16.	Which of the following are risks in a market index-linked CD?(Select all that apply.)A.	counterparty riskB.	credit riskC.	market riskD.	principal risk17.	In a market index-linked CD, you can only lose principal if the institution issuing the CD goes bankrupt.A.	TrueB.	False18.	Which of the following are risks in an exchange-traded note?(Select all that apply.)A.	counterparty riskB.

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz which is covering Credit Default Swaps, Adjustable Rate Securities and SPV'. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. SIE SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz which is coveringCredit Default Swaps, Adjustable Rate Securities and SPV's. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. 1.	Which of the following are derivative type products? (Select all that apply.) A.	auction rate securities B.	credit default swaps C.	exchange-traded notes D.	market index-linked CDs 2.	The reason you would buy a credit default swap if you are a speculator is you expect the credit worthiness of a company to ___. A.	go up B.	go down C.	be constant D.	be the same as the leading index on the market 3.	Credit default swaps are traded ___. A.	on floors B.	on the primary market C.	on the secondary market D.	over-the-counter 4.	There is no limit to the number of credit default swaps that can be written on any specific position. A.	True B.	False 5.	It is a credit default swap used as a hedge vehicle for a position. A.	covered CDS B.	indexed CDS C.	married CDS D.	naked CDS 6.	It is a credit default swap for bonds that you speculate on but do not own. A.	covered CDS B.	indexed CDS C.	married CDS D.	naked CDS 7.	How much would you pay for a credit default swap of a $50,000 worth of bonds that has a spread of 25 basis points? A.	$125 B.	$200 C.	$2,000 D.	$12,500 8.	In a Dutch auction, a person actually puts back the bond to the issuer. A.	True B.	False 9.	It is the lowest rate where there are enough purchasers willing to buy all the auctionable securities at a Dutch auction. A.	auction rate B.	clearing rate C.	interest rate D.	market rate 10.	In a Dutch auction, the clearing rate is reset ___. A.	every 7 days B.	every 28 days C.	every 35 days D.	based on whatever is set in the offering circular or official statement SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz: Continued 11.	In a Dutch auction, bids higher than the clearing rate will be able to buy the bonds. A.	True B.	False 12.	Which of the following happens in the case of a failed auction? (Select all that apply.) A.	There are so many people putting back their bonds but so few people buying them. B.	There is no enough interest that develops in the market. C.	People could not get out of their positions. D.	People hold on to their auction rate securities at the minimum yield that was put in the bond covenant. 13.	Which of the following are the risks in auction rate securities? (Select all that apply.) A.	counterparty risk B.	credit risk C.	marketability risk D.	suitability risk 14.	Which of the following is true in a market index-linked CD? (Select all that apply.) A.	These are CDs with a yield equivalent to a portion of an index. B.	If the market goes up, you will participate equally on how much the upside of the market is. C.	If the market goes down, you are guaranteed that your principal will not fall below par. D.	If the bank issuing the CD goes bankrupt and the CD is not federally insured, you will not get back your principal. 15.	If you don’t hold on to a market index-linked CD until maturity, you’re entitled to participate in its upside as long as the CD is FDIC insured. A.	True B.	False 16.	Which of the following are risks in a market index-linked CD? (Select all that apply.) A.	counterparty risk B.	credit risk C.	market risk D.	principal risk 17.	In a market index-linked CD, you can only lose principal if the institution issuing the CD goes bankrupt. A.	True B.	False 18.	Which of the following are risks in an exchange-traded note? (Select all that apply.) A.	counterparty risk B.

SIE Exam Lesson 10 Free Quiz: Credit Default Swaps, Adjustable Rate Securities and SPV’s

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 9 Free Quiz which is covering Money Market. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.SIE SIE Exam Lesson 9 Free QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 9 Free Quiz which is covering Money Market. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered includeBelow are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer.To take the quiz online, click here.1.	Which of the following is an example of a money market instrument?A.	treasury billsB.	commercial paperC.	banker’s acceptanceD.	all of the above2.	Money market instruments mature in ___.A.	one year or lessB.	two yearsC.	five yearsD.	ten years or more3.	This is the only type of banker’s acceptance that the Federal Reserve buys.A.	premium banker’s acceptanceB.	primary banker’s acceptanceC.	prime banker’s acceptanceD.	The Federal Reserve does not accept banker’s acceptance.4.	The price of repurchasing a security include a yield.A.	TrueB.	False5.	A reverse repurchase agreement is an agreement between two parties where one party agrees to sell a block of securities to another party with the agreement that those securities will be repurchased at a later date at a specific price.A.	TrueB.	False6.	The shortest repurchase agreement is ___.A.	twelve hoursB.	overnightC.	two daysD.	five days7.	Which is NOT a characteristic of a repurchase agreement?A.	It has a liquidity risk.B.	It has a purchasing power risk.C.	Its interest rate can change overnight.D.	Its interest rates are very low.8.	The reverse repurchase agreement is used primarily by the ___.A.	Federal ReserveB.	government agenciesC.	secondary marketD.	all of the above9.	A reverse repurchase agreement is also called a matched sale.A.	TrueB.	False10.	The Federal Reserve is owned by the government.A.	TrueB.	False11.	Which of the following does the President of the United States have authority to appoint in the Federal Reserve Board?A.	chairmanB.	governorsC.	both the chairman and the governorD.	neither the chairman nor the governor12.	The Federal Reserve having “open market operations” means ___.A.	It accepts all kinds of financial instruments.B.	It operates 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.C.	It transacts even with those people outside the member banks.D.	all of the above13.	How does the Federal Reserve create liquidity in the market?A.	It buys fixed-income investments.B.	It sells collateralized debt obligations.C.	It sells fixed-income investments.D.	all of the above14.	What does LIBOR stand for?A.	Leicester Internal Bureau of ReserveB.	Leicester International Bank Open RateC.	London Interbank Offered RateD.	London International Bank Official Rate15.	These are funds which a member bank of the Federal Reserve leaves on deposit at the Federal Reserve.A.	Federal AssetB.	Federal DepositsC.	Federal FundsD.	Federal Reserve Account16.	What is the Federal Fund rate?A.	the overnight rate which is the daily average of the rates of most member banksB.	the overnight rate which is the highest accounted rate of the day among the member banksC.	the overnight rate which is the rate of the day of the Federal ReserveD.	the overnight rate which is twice the rate of the day of the loaning bank17.	These are dollar-denominated deposits which are held in a bank branch outside the United States.A.	EurodollarsB.	Federal FundsC.	Foreign DepositsD.	all of the above18.	This is the rate for Eurodollars loaned overnight.A.	Eurodollar Overnight RateB.	Eurodollar Standardized RateC.	Federal Fund RateD.	London Interbank Offered Rate19.	The London Interbank Offered Rate is the average of Eurodollar loan rates of five major banks which are all located in London.A.	TrueB.	False20.	Which of the following is NOT considered as eligible securitie...

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 9 Free Quiz which is covering Money Market. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. SIE SIE Exam Lesson 9 Free Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 9 Free Quiz which is covering Money Market. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. 1.	Which of the following is an example of a money market instrument? A.	treasury bills B.	commercial paper C.	banker’s acceptance D.	all of the above 2.	Money market instruments mature in ___. A.	one year or less B.	two years C.	five years D.	ten years or more 3.	This is the only type of banker’s acceptance that the Federal Reserve buys. A.	premium banker’s acceptance B.	primary banker’s acceptance C.	prime banker’s acceptance D.	The Federal Reserve does not accept banker’s acceptance. 4.	The price of repurchasing a security include a yield. A.	True B.	False 5.	A reverse repurchase agreement is an agreement between two parties where one party agrees to sell a block of securities to another party with the agreement that those securities will be repurchased at a later date at a specific price. A.	True B.	False 6.	The shortest repurchase agreement is ___. A.	twelve hours B.	overnight C.	two days D.	five days 7.	Which is NOT a characteristic of a repurchase agreement? A.	It has a liquidity risk. B.	It has a purchasing power risk. C.	Its interest rate can change overnight. D.	Its interest rates are very low. 8.	The reverse repurchase agreement is used primarily by the ___. A.	Federal Reserve B.	government agencies C.	secondary market D.	all of the above 9.	A reverse repurchase agreement is also called a matched sale. A.	True B.	False 10.	The Federal Reserve is owned by the government. A.	True B.	False 11.	Which of the following does the President of the United States have authority to appoint in the Federal Reserve Board? A.	chairman B.	governors C.	both the chairman and the governor D.	neither the chairman nor the governor 12.	The Federal Reserve having “open market operations” means ___. A.	It accepts all kinds of financial instruments. B.	It operates 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. C.	It transacts even with those people outside the member banks. D.	all of the above 13.	How does the Federal Reserve create liquidity in the market? A.	It buys fixed-income investments. B.	It sells collateralized debt obligations. C.	It sells fixed-income investments. D.	all of the above 14.	What does LIBOR stand for? A.	Leicester Internal Bureau of Reserve B.	Leicester International Bank Open Rate C.	London Interbank Offered Rate D.	London International Bank Official Rate 15.	These are funds which a member bank of the Federal Reserve leaves on deposit at the Federal Reserve. A.	Federal Asset B.	Federal Deposits C.	Federal Funds D.	Federal Reserve Account 16.	What is the Federal Fund rate? A.	the overnight rate which is the daily average of the rates of most member banks B.	the overnight rate which is the highest accounted rate of the day among the member banks C.	the overnight rate which is the rate of the day of the Federal Reserve D.	the overnight rate which is twice the rate of the day of the loaning bank 17.	These are dollar-denominated deposits which are held in a bank branch outside the United States. A.	Eurodollars B.	Federal Funds C.	Foreign Deposits D.	all of the above 18.	This is the rate for Eurodollars loaned overnight. A.	Eurodollar Overnight Rate B.	Eurodollar Standardized Rate C.	Federal Fund Rate D.	London Interbank Offered Rate 19.	The London Interbank Offered Rate is the average of Eurodollar loan rates of five major banks which are all located in London. A.	True B.	False 20.	Which of the following is NOT considered as eligible securitie...

SIE Exam Lesson 9 Free Quiz: Money Market

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz which is covering Municipal Debt. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.SIE SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz which is covering Municipal Debt. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered includeBelow are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer.To take the quiz online, click here.1. Which is NOT a characteristic of municipal bonds?A. They are issued by the states, local government, and political subdivisions.B. They are issued in fully registered or book-entry forms.C. They do not obtain legal opinion when they are issued.D. All of the above are characteristics of municipal bonds.2. How are municipal bonds issued today?A. They are issued as bearer bonds.B. They are issued as serial bonds.C. They are issued both as bearer bonds and serial bonds.D. They are issued neither as bearer bonds nor serial bonds.3. The interest on qualified municipal bonds are always exempted from federal tax.A. TrueB. False4. It is done by a bond counsel who examines the issue to determine if the municipal bond is legally binding on the issuer and that the interest is exempt from federal tax under the current law.A. constitutional limitingB. feasibility studyC. legal opinionD. trust indenture5. A bond counsel giving a qualified legal opinion says that there may be problems with the issue of the municipal bond such as the exemption from federal tax.A. TrueB. False6. Which of the following is a municipal bond?A. moral obligation bondB. special assessment bondC. industrial development bondD. all of the above7. Which of the following does NOT secure a special tax bond?A. ad valorem taxB. cigarette taxC. gasoline taxD. liquor tax8. The issuance of this bond is backed up by a revenue source (other than an ad valorem tax or property tax) and by the full faith and credit of the taxing authority.A. double-barreled bondB. general obligation bondC. limited tax bondD. Public Housing Authority bond9. Short-term municipal notes have a life of less than twelve months up to three years.A. TrueB. False10. These notes are issued at the end of the year and the taxes received at the beginning of the year will be used to pay off the issued notes.A. grant anticipation notesB. revenue anticipation notesC. tax anticipation notesD. tax exempt commercial paperSIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz: Municipal Debt: Continued11. Step up or step down variable interest notes have interest rate that goes up or down and keeps the value of the bond basically at par.A. TrueB. False12. Which of the following does NOT contribute to a state’s income?A. income taxB. real property taxC. sales taxD. All of the above contribute to a state’s income.13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a general obligation bond?A. It carries the full faith and credit of the issuing municipality.B. It carries the highest ratings and therefore the highest yield.C. It is serviced by ad valorem taxes.D. All of the above are characteristics of a general obligation bond.14. Which of the following is NOT a revenue bond?A. hospital bondB. sewer bondC. special assessment bondD. water bond15. These are used for the protection of the investor in the bonds.A. deed covenantB. nondiscrimination covenantC. protective covenantD. revenue pledge covenant16. The element of a municipal bond that allows, but not obliges, the issuer to call the bonds usually after a certain date.A. call featureB. mandatory redemption provisionC. optional redemption provisionD. refund feature17. Which insurance company insure municipal bond debt?A. American Municipal Bond Assurance Corporation (AMBAC)B. Financial Guarantee Insurance Corporation (FGIC)C.

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz which is covering Municipal Debt. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. SIE SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz which is covering Municipal Debt. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. 1. Which is NOT a characteristic of municipal bonds? A. They are issued by the states, local government, and political subdivisions. B. They are issued in fully registered or book-entry forms. C. They do not obtain legal opinion when they are issued. D. All of the above are characteristics of municipal bonds. 2. How are municipal bonds issued today? A. They are issued as bearer bonds. B. They are issued as serial bonds. C. They are issued both as bearer bonds and serial bonds. D. They are issued neither as bearer bonds nor serial bonds. 3. The interest on qualified municipal bonds are always exempted from federal tax. A. True B. False 4. It is done by a bond counsel who examines the issue to determine if the municipal bond is legally binding on the issuer and that the interest is exempt from federal tax under the current law. A. constitutional limiting B. feasibility study C. legal opinion D. trust indenture 5. A bond counsel giving a qualified legal opinion says that there may be problems with the issue of the municipal bond such as the exemption from federal tax. A. True B. False 6. Which of the following is a municipal bond? A. moral obligation bond B. special assessment bond C. industrial development bond D. all of the above 7. Which of the following does NOT secure a special tax bond? A. ad valorem tax B. cigarette tax C. gasoline tax D. liquor tax 8. The issuance of this bond is backed up by a revenue source (other than an ad valorem tax or property tax) and by the full faith and credit of the taxing authority. A. double-barreled bond B. general obligation bond C. limited tax bond D. Public Housing Authority bond 9. Short-term municipal notes have a life of less than twelve months up to three years. A. True B. False 10. These notes are issued at the end of the year and the taxes received at the beginning of the year will be used to pay off the issued notes. A. grant anticipation notes B. revenue anticipation notes C. tax anticipation notes D. tax exempt commercial paper SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz: Municipal Debt: Continued 11. Step up or step down variable interest notes have interest rate that goes up or down and keeps the value of the bond basically at par. A. True B. False 12. Which of the following does NOT contribute to a state’s income? A. income tax B. real property tax C. sales tax D. All of the above contribute to a state’s income. 13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a general obligation bond? A. It carries the full faith and credit of the issuing municipality. B. It carries the highest ratings and therefore the highest yield. C. It is serviced by ad valorem taxes. D. All of the above are characteristics of a general obligation bond. 14. Which of the following is NOT a revenue bond? A. hospital bond B. sewer bond C. special assessment bond D. water bond 15. These are used for the protection of the investor in the bonds. A. deed covenant B. nondiscrimination covenant C. protective covenant D. revenue pledge covenant 16. The element of a municipal bond that allows, but not obliges, the issuer to call the bonds usually after a certain date. A. call feature B. mandatory redemption provision C. optional redemption provision D. refund feature 17. Which insurance company insure municipal bond debt? A. American Municipal Bond Assurance Corporation (AMBAC) B. Financial Guarantee Insurance Corporation (FGIC) C.

SIE Exam Lesson 8 Free Quiz: Municipal Debt

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.SIE SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free QuizThis is a SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over.Questions covered includeBelow are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer.To take the quiz online, click here.1.	The US government is not subject to the Securities Act of 1933.A.	TrueB.	False2.	Which of the following are non-callable?A.	treasury notesB.	treasury bondsC.	treasury billsD.	all of the above3.	A risk free investment guarantees a client to get back a dollar for every dollar he invests as long as he does it at par.A.	TrueB.	False4.	Which of the following is a risk-free investment?A.	Collateralized Mortgage ObligationsB.	treasury billsC.	zero coupon bondD.	all of the above5.	Interest on direct US treasuries are exempted from ___.A.	federal taxationB.	state taxationC.	both federal taxation and state taxationD.	neither federal taxation nor state taxation6.	Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of US government bonds?A.	Their auctions are held every six months.B.	Their interest is paid semiannually.C.	They are callable.D.	They are the longest issued bonds.7.	Interest rates of Treasury Inflation Protected Securities are usually lower than treasury notes or treasury bonds because of the ___.A.	coupon rateB.	inflation protectionC.	state taxationD.	all of the above8.	Which of the following is NOT a quasi-hybrid security?A.	Certificates of Accrual on Treasury Securities (CATS)B.	Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal Securities (STRIPS)C.	Treasury Income Growth Receipts (TIGERS)D.	All of the above are quasi-hybrid securities.9.	It is an independent federal agency created as a successor regulatory agency from the merger of the Federal Housing Finance Board, the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight and the US Department of Housing and Urban Development.A.	Federal Home Loan AgencyB.	Federal Housing Finance AgencyC.	Federal Intermediate Credit AgencyD.	Federal Land AgencySIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz: Continued10.	The only US government agency obligation that carries the full faith and credit of the United States governmentA.	Farmers Housing AdministrationB.	Government National Mortgage AssociationC.	Small Business AdministrationD.	Student Loan Marketing Association11.	Which of the following is NOT guaranteed in a Ginnie Mae certificate?A.	duration of the investmentB.	interest rateC.	principalD.	All of the above are guaranteed in a Ginnie Mae certificate.12.	Why does the investment value of a Collateralized Mortgage Obligation decline in a client’s statement?A.	The interest rate goes down making the investment value decrease.B.	The principal is adjusted based on the current inflation rate.C.	The reduction in the investment value is received by the client every month as part of the principal.D.	all of the above13.	Zero coupon bonds are created by the government.A.	TrueB.	False14.	These are government notes or government bonds whose interest payments are stripped out and then sold at a discount.A.	serial bondsB.	treasury billsC.	treasury bondsD.	zero coupon bonds15.	If a client owns a 20-year zero coupon treasury bond and interest rates go up, that bond in the secondary market will ___.A.	drop as much as a regular bondB.	drop significantly more than a regular bondC.	rise as much as a regular bondD.	rise significantly more than a regular bond16.	Which of the following is a characteristic of the Student Loan Marketing Association?A.	It issues normal debentures which are backed by its loans.B.	Interest is paid semi-annually on its bonds.C.

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. SIE SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include Below are questions based on the previous lesson. Choose the letter of the correct answer. To take the quiz online, click here. 1.	The US government is not subject to the Securities Act of 1933. A.	True B.	False 2.	Which of the following are non-callable? A.	treasury notes B.	treasury bonds C.	treasury bills D.	all of the above 3.	A risk free investment guarantees a client to get back a dollar for every dollar he invests as long as he does it at par. A.	True B.	False 4.	Which of the following is a risk-free investment? A.	Collateralized Mortgage Obligations B.	treasury bills C.	zero coupon bond D.	all of the above 5.	Interest on direct US treasuries are exempted from ___. A.	federal taxation B.	state taxation C.	both federal taxation and state taxation D.	neither federal taxation nor state taxation 6.	Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of US government bonds? A.	Their auctions are held every six months. B.	Their interest is paid semiannually. C.	They are callable. D.	They are the longest issued bonds. 7.	Interest rates of Treasury Inflation Protected Securities are usually lower than treasury notes or treasury bonds because of the ___. A.	coupon rate B.	inflation protection C.	state taxation D.	all of the above 8.	Which of the following is NOT a quasi-hybrid security? A.	Certificates of Accrual on Treasury Securities (CATS) B.	Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal Securities (STRIPS) C.	Treasury Income Growth Receipts (TIGERS) D.	All of the above are quasi-hybrid securities. 9.	It is an independent federal agency created as a successor regulatory agency from the merger of the Federal Housing Finance Board, the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight and the US Department of Housing and Urban Development. A.	Federal Home Loan Agency B.	Federal Housing Finance Agency C.	Federal Intermediate Credit Agency D.	Federal Land Agency SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz: Continued 10.	The only US government agency obligation that carries the full faith and credit of the United States government A.	Farmers Housing Administration B.	Government National Mortgage Association C.	Small Business Administration D.	Student Loan Marketing Association 11.	Which of the following is NOT guaranteed in a Ginnie Mae certificate? A.	duration of the investment B.	interest rate C.	principal D.	All of the above are guaranteed in a Ginnie Mae certificate. 12.	Why does the investment value of a Collateralized Mortgage Obligation decline in a client’s statement? A.	The interest rate goes down making the investment value decrease. B.	The principal is adjusted based on the current inflation rate. C.	The reduction in the investment value is received by the client every month as part of the principal. D.	all of the above 13.	Zero coupon bonds are created by the government. A.	True B.	False 14.	These are government notes or government bonds whose interest payments are stripped out and then sold at a discount. A.	serial bonds B.	treasury bills C.	treasury bonds D.	zero coupon bonds 15.	If a client owns a 20-year zero coupon treasury bond and interest rates go up, that bond in the secondary market will ___. A.	drop as much as a regular bond B.	drop significantly more than a regular bond C.	rise as much as a regular bond D.	rise significantly more than a regular bond 16.	Which of the following is a characteristic of the Student Loan Marketing Association? A.	It issues normal debentures which are backed by its loans. B.	Interest is paid semi-annually on its bonds. C.

SIE Exam Lesson 7 Free Quiz: Fixed Income pt. 3

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quizz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include   Which of the following is the correct set of government bills in order of increasing length in which they are set? A. bills, notes, bonds B. notes, bonds, bills C. bonds, notes, bills D. All of the above government bills have equal duration in which they are set.   Which of the following is NOT a US government sponsored entity? A. Fannie Mae B. Freddie Mac C. Ginnie Mae D. Sallie Mac   A call feature is a compulsory redemption of the bond at a specific price. A. True B. False   A call protection period is _____. A. a period of time which protects the bond holder from an increase in the interest rate B. a period of time which protects the bond holder from a decrease in the dividend C. a period of time which protects the bond holder from a call from the issuer D. a period of time which protects the bond holder from a call from the transfer agent   It is best to quote a bond to a client in the most conservative yield. A. True B. False   It is the right of the bond holder to redeem the bond from the issuer on a specific date. A. call feature B. put feature C. tending feature D. refund feature   US treasury bonds are quoted in ___. A. eighths B. sixteenths C. thirty-seconds D. sixty-fourths   Corporate bonds are quoted in ___. A. eighths B. sixteenths C. thirty-seconds D. sixty-fourths   Bonds that trade flat are bonds without accrued interest. A. True B. False   Which of the following is a bond that trade flat? A. defaulted bond B. commercial paper C. zero coupon bond D. all of the above SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quiz: Fixed Income pt. 2: Continued   A basis point is 10th of a percentage point. A. True B. False   In calculating the price of a serial bond, the following are needed EXCEPT ___. A. call date B. maturity date C. settlement date D. yield basis quote   In corporate bonds, in the event of dissolution, which of the following is the correct set of obligation in order of decreasing priority? A. preferred stockholders  secured creditors  debentures  unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors B. secured creditors  preferred stockholders  debentures  unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors C. secured creditors  unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors  debentures  preferred stockholders D. unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors  debentures  secured creditors  preferred stockholders   The Trust Indenture Act of 1939 includes which of the following? A. the terms of the issuance of bond B. specific protections for the bondholders C. important information for the full disclosure of the terms of that bond offering D. all of the above   All of the following are secured debts EXCEPT ___. A. debentures B. equipment trust certificates C. mortgage bonds D. All of the above are secured debts.   Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a commercial paper? A. It is registered in the Securities and Exchange Commission. B. It is usually in very large denominations. C. It is usually issued at a discount. D. Its maturity does not exceed 270 days.   It gives the bond holder the option of converting his debt in common stock at a set conversion ratio. A. collateral trust certificates B. convertible corporate debt C. direct paper D. income bonds   Why would a bond be called by the issuer? A. to convert the bond into common stock B. to exchange the bond for another bond C. to make interest payments tax deductible D. to put a ceiling price on the bond if the interest rates go down   When the bond and stock are trading at equivalent values and there's no theoretic...  

This is a SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quizz This is a SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quiz which is covering Fixed income. Try it and see how you do if you need help listen to the lesson over. Questions covered include <ol> <li> Which of the following is the correct set of government bills in order of increasing length in which they are set? A. bills, notes, bonds B. notes, bonds, bills C. bonds, notes, bills D. All of the above government bills have equal duration in which they are set. </li> <li> Which of the following is NOT a US government sponsored entity? A. Fannie Mae B. Freddie Mac C. Ginnie Mae D. Sallie Mac </li> <li> A call feature is a compulsory redemption of the bond at a specific price. A. True B. False </li> <li> A call protection period is _____. A. a period of time which protects the bond holder from an increase in the interest rate B. a period of time which protects the bond holder from a decrease in the dividend C. a period of time which protects the bond holder from a call from the issuer D. a period of time which protects the bond holder from a call from the transfer agent </li> <li> It is best to quote a bond to a client in the most conservative yield. A. True B. False </li> <li> It is the right of the bond holder to redeem the bond from the issuer on a specific date. A. call feature B. put feature C. tending feature D. refund feature </li> <li> US treasury bonds are quoted in ___. A. eighths B. sixteenths C. thirty-seconds D. sixty-fourths </li> <li> Corporate bonds are quoted in ___. A. eighths B. sixteenths C. thirty-seconds D. sixty-fourths </li> <li> Bonds that trade flat are bonds without accrued interest. A. True B. False </li> <li> Which of the following is a bond that trade flat? A. defaulted bond B. commercial paper C. zero coupon bond D. all of the above SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quiz: Fixed Income pt. 2: Continued </li> <li> A basis point is 10th of a percentage point. A. True B. False </li> <li> In calculating the price of a serial bond, the following are needed EXCEPT ___. A. call date B. maturity date C. settlement date D. yield basis quote </li> <li> In corporate bonds, in the event of dissolution, which of the following is the correct set of obligation in order of decreasing priority? A. preferred stockholders  secured creditors  debentures  unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors B. secured creditors  preferred stockholders  debentures  unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors C. secured creditors  unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors  debentures  preferred stockholders D. unpaid wages, taxes, trade creditors  debentures  secured creditors  preferred stockholders </li> <li> The Trust Indenture Act of 1939 includes which of the following? A. the terms of the issuance of bond B. specific protections for the bondholders C. important information for the full disclosure of the terms of that bond offering D. all of the above </li> <li> All of the following are secured debts EXCEPT ___. A. debentures B. equipment trust certificates C. mortgage bonds D. All of the above are secured debts. </li> <li> Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a commercial paper? A. It is registered in the Securities and Exchange Commission. B. It is usually in very large denominations. C. It is usually issued at a discount. D. Its maturity does not exceed 270 days. </li> <li> It gives the bond holder the option of converting his debt in common stock at a set conversion ratio. A. collateral trust certificates B. convertible corporate debt C. direct paper D. income bonds </li> <li> Why would a bond be called by the issuer? A. to convert the bond into common stock B. to exchange the bond for another bond C. to make interest payments tax deductible D. to put a ceiling price on the bond if the interest rates go down </li> <li> When the bond and stock are trading at equivalent values and there's no theoretic... </li> </ol>

SIE Exam Lesson 6 Free Quiz: Fixed Income pt. 2

I want to enter the financial services industry this podcast is a great way to start learning about the topics I need to understand in order to take the securities industry’s essentials exam. It’s great that now I can prepare for this examination and my entry into the financial services industry without being required to be an employee of a broker dealer or associated firm of FINRA.
I enjoyed the audio method of learning and I’m glad that Franz is putting out this series of audio lessons.

Good information!

SIE Exam: Securities Industry Essentials Exam Lessons and Information

SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trusts Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 21 is another portion (about 1/2 of the full lesson) that we will share with you for the new 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 21 The full course details:  Total Course 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. Here is a link to the table of Contents Here is what my customers say about my audio lessons Testimonials FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. https://www.finra.org/industry/series7 However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance,

SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trusts Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 21 is another portion (about 1/2 of the full lesson) that we will share with you for the new 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 21 The full course details: Total Course 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. Here is a link to the table of Contents Here is what my customers say about my audio lessons Testimonials FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/series7" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/series7</a> However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam</a> “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance,

2020 SIE Exam Lesson 21

SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trusts 2020 This is about one half of the full length of this audio lesson for SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trusts This Lesson of the Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam audio course is a Sample Lesson of the full 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 5 Fixed income The full course details: 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. https://www.finra.org/industry/series7 However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance, and helps them identify their investment objectives” “Opens accounts,

SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trusts 2020 This is about one half of the full length of this audio lesson for SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trusts This Lesson of the Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam audio course is a Sample Lesson of the full 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 5 Fixed income The full course details: 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/series7" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/series7</a> However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam</a> “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance, and helps them identify their investment objectives” “Opens accounts,

2020 SIE Exam Lesson 21 Unit Investment Trusts

SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Act of 1934 Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 24 is another portion (about 1/2 of the full lesson) that we will share with you for the new 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 24 The full course details:  Total Course 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. Here is a link to the table of Contents Here is what my customers say about my audio lessons Testimonials FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. https://www.finra.org/industry/series7 However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance,

SIE Exam Lesson 24 Securities Act of 1934 Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 24 is another portion (about 1/2 of the full lesson) that we will share with you for the new 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 24 The full course details: Total Course 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. Here is a link to the table of Contents Here is what my customers say about my audio lessons Testimonials FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/series7" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/series7</a> However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam</a> “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance,

2020 SIE Exam Lesson 24

SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds 3 2020 This is about one half of the full length of this audio lesson for SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds 3 This Lesson of the Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam audio course is a Sample Lesson of the full 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 5 Fixed income The full course details: 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. https://www.finra.org/industry/series7 However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance, and helps them identify their investment objectives” “Opens accounts,

SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds 3 2020 This is about one half of the full length of this audio lesson for SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds 3 This Lesson of the Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam audio course is a Sample Lesson of the full 36 hour and 35 min audio course "Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam" and this is Securities Industry Essentials SIE Exam Sample Lesson 5 Fixed income The full course details: 36 hours 53 Min of audio instruction to help you prepare for the Securities Industry Essentials Exam 58 Audio Lessons for Securities Industry Essentials Exam 13 Bonus Lessons about the finance industry Securities Industry Essentials Exam Podcast Audio Lessons for the SIE Exam New Series 7 Exam and SIE Exam details. FINRA has announced major changes to the Series 7 Exam effective October 1, 2018. With the introduction of the Securities Industries Essentials Exam (SIE Exam) the new series 7 has been pared down to 125 questions from its original 250 questions. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/series7" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/series7</a> However now all candidates now must now pass both the SIE exam (securities industry essentials exam) as well as the New Top-Odd Series 7 Exam. In a series 7 candidate must also have an industry sponsor in order to take the examination tot to take the SIE Exam the candidate simply needs to be 18 years old and no broker affiliation is needed.. <a href="https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">https://www.finra.org/industry/essentials-exam</a> “Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam Available Beginning October 1, 2018 The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE or Essentials) Exam, available beginning October 1, 2018, is a new FINRA exam for prospective securities industry professionals. This introductory-level exam assesses a candidate’s knowledge of basic securities industry information including concepts fundamental to working in the industry, such as types of products and their risks; the structure of the securities industry markets, regulatory agencies and their functions; and prohibited practices. Key Features of the Essentials Exam • The Essentials exam is open to anyone aged 18 or older, including students and prospective candidates interested in demonstrating basic industry knowledge to potential employers. • Association with a firm is not required, and individuals are permitted to take the exam before or after associating with a firm. • Essentials exam results are valid for four years. The Essentials Exam at a Glance Number of Items 75 Format Multiple Choice Duration 105 minutes Passing Score 70% Cost $60” New Series 7 Exam “On or After October 1, 2018 The New Series 7 Content Outline provides a comprehensive guide to the range of topics covered on the exam, as well as the depth of knowledge required. The outline is comprised of the four main job functions of a general securities representative. The table below lists the allocation of exam questions for each main job function. Major Job Functions Percentage of Test Questions Number of Test Questions (F1) Seeks Business for the Broker-Dealer from Customers and Potential Customers 7% 9 (F2) Opens Accounts after Obtaining and Evaluating Customers’ Financial Profile and Investment Objectives 9% 11 (F3) Provides Customers with Information about Investments, Makes Suitable Recommendations, Transfers Assets and Maintains Appropriate Records 73% 91 (F4) Obtains and Verifies Customers’ Purchase and Sales Instructions and Agreements; Processes, Completes, and Confirms Transactions 11% 14 TOTAL 100% 125” The five job functions of the new Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam will be: “Seeks business for the broker-dealer through customers and potential customers” “Evaluates customers’ financial status, financial needs and risk tolerance, and helps them identify their investment objectives” “Opens accounts,

2020 SIE Exam Lesson 20 Mutual Funds 3

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